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Is it okay to simply assume that God saves all?

Cormack

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Are there any verses in the Bible that outright prohibit “slavery” from this or that point onwards? I’m not sure there are. The classic “Slaves be obedient to your masters” was not a disbarring of the idea in even the New Testament times.

In Christ there being “no slave nor free” doesn’t have much stopping power either, since “neither male nor female” soon follows in the conversation, and nobody wants to deny males and females but the transgender crowd. Here are some brief thoughts on the subject for anyone who is bothered by the notion of biblical “slavery.”

Transatlantic style slavery is not what we read about when we read into the biblical histories, the use of “slaves” and “slavery” was an unfortunate choice of words by the King James crowd that now conjures up thoughts of America slavery and American racism.

Rosa Parks, Martin Luther King and Emmett Till levels of racially motivated heroism and cruelty are not part of the biblical story, they’re more suited to modern history.

For more on biblical slavery I’d like others to search the phrase “indentured servitude,” because that’s what the authors are often commenting on in context. Does the Bible ever outright ban indentured servitude? Not from my reading, then again it’s a kind of ugly freewill contract for people to absolve their debts in that fashion.
 
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BNR32FAN

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I'm not going to indulge in this pseudo-intellectual game with you. If you want to think it's ok to own slaves then you, not being a slave, are free to do so. I am not interested in persuading you otherwise.

“WAS OK” I never said “is ok”. Your the one who brought up this topic. This is your thread and you won’t discuss it? This is the whole basis for your thread, why base your argument on this topic then refuse to discuss it? That makes no sense at all. I’m simply quoting scripture and asking you what it says. Why was slavery condoned in the biblical times? Because God commanded it. Why is it not condoned now?

“Every person is to be in subjection to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except from God, and those which exist are established by God. Therefore whoever resists authority has opposed the ordinance of God; and they who have opposed will receive condemnation upon themselves.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭13:1-2‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Because God has changed it. I don’t know why, I just know that’s what the scriptures tell us.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Are there any verses in the Bible that outright prohibit “slavery” from this or that point onwards? I’m not sure there are. The classic “Slaves be obedient to your masters” was not a disbarring of the idea in even the New Testament times.

In Christ there being “no slave nor free” doesn’t have much stopping power either, since “neither male nor female” soon follows in the conversation, and nobody wants to deny males and females but the transgender crowd. Here are some brief thoughts on the subject for anyone who is bothered by the notion of biblical “slavery.”

Transatlantic style slavery is not what we read about when we read into the biblical histories, the use of “slaves” and “slavery” was an unfortunate choice of words by the King James crowd that now conjures up thoughts of America slavery and American racism.

Rosa Parks, Martin Luther King and Emmett Till levels of racially motivated heroism and cruelty are not part of the biblical story, they’re more suited to modern history.

For more on biblical slavery I’d like others to search the phrase “indentured servitude,” because that’s what the authors are often commenting on in context. Does the Bible ever outright ban indentured servitude? Not from my reading, then again it’s a kind of ugly freewill contract for people to absolve their debts in that fashion.

Brother, in the context of Ephesians 6:5-8 Paul was addressing the Gentiles who were not under the Jewish laws concerning slavery. So these weren’t people who like the Jews sold themselves into slavery for 7 years. Paul does urge the masters of the slaves to be compassionate and fair to their slaves because Gentile masters were often cruel to them. So while God may not have forbids slavery at that time He did forbid cruel and unfair treatment of them. Later as time progressed God abolished slavery thru the secular governments which He has put in place.
 
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Hmm

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“WAS OK” I never said “is ok”. Your the one who brought up this topic. This is your thread and you won’t discuss it? This is the whole basis for your thread, why base your argument on this topic then refuse to discuss it? That makes no sense at all. I’m simply quoting scripture and asking you what it says. Why was slavery condoned in the biblical times? Because God commanded it. Why is it not condoned now?

“Every person is to be in subjection to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except from God, and those which exist are established by God. Therefore whoever resists authority has opposed the ordinance of God; and they who have opposed will receive condemnation upon themselves.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭13:1-2‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Because God has changed it. I don’t know why, I just know that’s what the scriptures tell us.

I'm saying it's pointless us discussing the meaning of the slavery passages because we'd need to do a study of them to be able to say anything with any accuracy and I haven't and I suspect you haven't done that. You can give your personal view on what it means but how can we discuss that when you don't say what it's informed by and it's just the way you read it?

Slavery isn't the topic of the thread anyway. I just used it as an example of how people have used the Bible to justify certain behaviour that we now reject without needing to produce counter arguments from scripture. Slavery didn't end because the abolishionists won a text proofing argument and I'm not going to engage in one with you about it. The question of the thread is why things like slavery came to be seen as wrong if it wasn't through text proofing.
 
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Cormack

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Brother, in the context of Ephesians 6:5-8 Paul was addressing the Gentiles who were not under the Jewish laws concerning slavery. So these weren’t people who like the Jews sold themselves into slavery for 7 years.

Of course, although, Greek and Roman slavery had these humanising nuances that the transatlantic slave trade lacked, in the same way that Jewish “slavery” operated.

One Greek rhetorician argued “not even the most worthless slave can be put to death without trial.” Point being that what we now describe as “chattel slavery,” especially a sort motivated by racial differences, that’s not the Bibles bag. However removed we are from the original context, that’s no green light to impose modern categories onto the ancient world.

Later as time progressed God abolished slavery thru the secular governments which He has put in place.

Many secular governments have done many things, from abolishing one cultural norm like slavery to altering another norm like the definition of marriage between one man and one woman. Though you’d be hard pressed to find old school Bible believing Christians who would argue that those changes to the marriage situation were of God.

The second is considered by many to be not the work of God but rather an example of the end of days eroding the good that He’s already established. Why should you or I presume Gods handiwork in one form of cultural revolution around an act that He never proclaimed over (indentured servitude) and not in the other (marriage)?

Gods permission shown in the fact that He has allowed these institutions to crumble isn’t necessarily His proclamation that He demands them to crumble. I for one think God prefers the old version of marriage.
 
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Ligurian

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Is it okay to simply assume that God saves all?

Revelation 22:14-15 Blesssed [are] the ones observing His Commandments, that their authority will be unto the tree of life, and by the gatehouses they should enter into the city.[15] Outside [are] the dogs, and the administers of potions, and the fornicators, and the murderers, and the idolaters, and every [one] being fond of committing a lie.(ABP)
 
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Hmm

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Revelation 22:14-15 Blesssed [are] the ones observing His Commandments, that their authority will be unto the tree of life, and by the gatehouses they should enter into the city.[15] Outside [are] the dogs, and the administers of potions, and the fornicators, and the murderers, and the idolaters, and every [one] being fond of committing a lie.(ABP)

Rev 21:25 "Its gates will never be shut..."
 
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BNR32FAN

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You can give your personal view on what it means but how can we discuss that when you don't say what it's informed by and it's just the way you read it?

There’s only one way to read that passage from Leviticus. God specifically stated that the Jews could buy and own slaves. There’s no interpretation required to understand it because it’s plainly stated.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Many secular governments have done many things, from abolishing one cultural norm like slavery to altering another norm like the definition of marriage between one man and one woman. Though you’d be hard pressed to find old school Bible believing Christians who would argue that those changes to the marriage situation were of God.

The second is considered by many to be not the work of God but rather an example of the end of days eroding the good that He’s already established. Why should you or I presume Gods handiwork in one form of cultural revolution around an act that He never proclaimed over (indentured servitude) and not in the other (marriage)?

Homosexuality is forbidden by the scriptures, the abolishment of slavery is not.
 
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LeafByNiggle

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In general, it's okay to ask "Would the God perfectly portrayed by Jesus in the Gospels really send anyone to an eternal hell of torture/torment?. If He's omnipotent, can He not find a way to draw all people to Himself freely?"
It is important to make the distinction between what God could do and what God would do. God could save all people. Maybe He even will save all people. But it is wrong to assume that He will do that. We know that God desires that all people be saved. But God also wants all people to have free will. And God may have even more desires and priorities that we know nothing about. God is so far beyond our understanding that any assumptions about what God will do, unless specifically revealed to us by God, amounts to mere speculation. We can speculate that God will somehow bring all souls to salvation. We can even pray for that outcome, with the same provision that Jesus stated as he prayed for his cup of suffering to pass - namely that "your will be done, and not mine." We can pray for it. We can hope for it. But we cannot assume it.
 
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Hmm

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There’s only one way to read that passage from Leviticus. God specifically stated that the Jews could buy and own slaves. There’s no interpretation required to understand it because it’s plainly stated.

I'll reserve judgement on that because neither of us have made a study the passage and are in a position to make an informed comment.
 
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Hmm

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It is important to make the distinction between what God could do and what God would do. God could save all people. Maybe He even will save all people. But it is wrong to assume that He will do that. We know that God desires that all people be saved. But God also wants all people to have free will. And God may have even more desires and priorities that we know nothing about. God is so far beyond our understanding that any assumptions about what God will do, unless specifically revealed to us by God, amounts to mere speculation. We can speculate that God will somehow bring all souls to salvation. We can even pray for that outcome, with the same provision that Jesus stated as he prayed for his cup of suffering to pass - namely that "your will be done, and not mine." We can pray for it. We can hope for it. But we cannot assume it.

Neither should we assume that free will is an insurmountable barrier to God achieving his promise to one day create the world anew and be 'all in all'.

I believe one of the main universalist answer to the free will question has been given earlier in this thread. If it hasn't, I'd be happy to summarise it for you.

I see from your username that you're a Tolkien fan. Me too.
 
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BNR32FAN

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I'll reserve judgement on that because neither of us have made a study the passage and are in a position to make an informed comment.

Now your just refusing to acknowledge the scriptures that refute your position. Like I said it’s completely obvious that God allowed the Jews to buy and keep slaves according to that passage. Your just refusing to accept that.
 
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Hmm

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Now your just refusing to acknowledge the scriptures that refute your position. Like I said it’s completely obvious that God allowed the Jews to buy and keep slaves according to that passage. Your just refusing to accept that.

I don't want to keep repeating myself but the fact that it's "completely obvious" to you is not wholly convincing to me I'm afraid. I would need to look at a range of informed views of the passage and then see if I can make a (provisional) conclusion but, as I say, I'm not particularly interested in doing so so I really have nothing more to say on the subject. It's not what this thread is about.
 
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LeafByNiggle

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Neither should we assume that free will is an insurmountable barrier to God achieving his promise to one day create the world anew and be 'all in all'.
Of course. If God chooses to honor Man's free will over His desire that all be saved, it is not because God is unable to put aside Man's free will. It is because He so chooses. We don't know if He will so choose that or not. I could turn it around and say "neither should we assume that God's desire that all come to Him is an insurmountable barrier to God honoring Man's free will." Again, I am not saying that universal salvation is impossible. I am just saying it is currently unknowable to us.

I believe one of the main universalist answer to the free will question has been given earlier in this thread. If it hasn't, I'd be happy to summarise it for you.
Since I haven't followed this thread from the beginning and there are over 150 posts already, I would appreciate that.
I see from your username that you're a Tolkien fan. Me too.
:thumbsup:
 
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Hmm

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I could turn it around and say "neither should we assume that God's desire that all come to Him is an insurmountable barrier to God honoring Man's free will." Again, I am not saying that universal salvation is impossible. I am just saying it is currently unknowable to us.

I agree.

Since I haven't followed this thread from the beginning and there are over 150 posts already, I would appreciate that.

[URL="https://www.christianforums.com/threads/is-it-okay-to-simply-assume-that-god-saves-all.8248902/page-6#post-76730572"]#107[/URL] was the post I was thinking of.

I thought I'd also send you an accessible analysis by Keith DeRose of the issues that arise in reconciling universalism with free will. It's a philosophical treatment and so doesn't very directly involve the Biblical case for or against universalism but, though quite long, it's an interesting read.

"Many who have e-mailed me have been concerned about free will. Doesn’t one have to freely accept Christ in order to be saved? This is an extension of strong exclusivism. Strong exclusivism, as I have used it above, says that in order to be saved, one must somehow explicitly accept Christ. Now, we’re adding to this that the accepting must be free. Let’s call this new position fervent exclusivism. If we accept fervent exclusivism, how can we say that universalism is true?

I don’t know of any serious scriptural support for fervent exclusivism itself. Still, it’s worth taking seriously and thinking about, because it is, for those who think human freedom is very important, the natural extension of strong exclusivism, for which there is in my view significant scriptural support. If you think that one must accept Christ to be saved, and if you think that human freedom is important, you’re likely to think that the free acceptance of Christ is very valuable and important — perhaps important enough that one’s ultimate destiny might ride on it.

So, for those who are attracted to this fervent variety of exclusivism: First note that even fervent exclusivism is compatible with universalism. The first of these says that to be saved one must freely accept Christ. The second says that, eventually at least, all will be saved. It’s easy to see how these can both be true: If all will eventually freely accept Christ.

But even if it is possible for both positions to be true, is it all plausible to suppose they will be? Supposing there is nothing barring further chances — that the free accepting may take place after death (see sections 6 and 7 above) — I don’t see why not. After all, there is an omnipotent and infinitely resourceful God, whom we know “desires everyone to be saved” (I Timothy 2:4), and has as much time as He needs to bring everyone around. I certainly wouldn’t want to bet against Him! We know that some in this life have been only been moving further and further away from accepting Christ. And some people can be very obstinate. And some have become incredibly evil in this life. But, on the other hand, even in this short life, we all know of instances in which people having all three of these problems to a great degree who were brought around and were saved. So, again, I see no grounds for pessimism that an infinitely resourceful God, who is able to take as much time as He needs, will be able to win over everyone eventually.

(If you think that the most dramatic turn-arounds in this life have involved an infringement on the freedom of the people involved, but agree that they were saved nonetheless, then you you are not a fervent exclusivist, and you should have no objections to such non-free savings taking place after death. I am here addressing only fervent exclusivists.)

But some seem to have a different worry — not that fervent exclusivism is incompatible with universalism, but that, if fervent exclusivism is true, then nobody, not even God, can know (or at least know for certain) that all will be saved, since nobody can know what people will freely do. So, even if universalism will turn to be true, we cannot know that now, and God would not have revealed that to us already. According to this worry, fervent exclusivism doesn’t show that universalism won’t be true, but it does undermine the position that universalism is revealed in the scriptures.

This new worry, then, is based on the assumption that free will is incompatible with foreknowledge: that it is impossible, even for God, to know (or at least to know for certain) ahead of time what someone will freely do. Note that God can still be omniscient despite not knowing what we will freely do. Omniscience is a matter of knowing all truths. And if you deny that God knows what creatures will freely do, you’re likely to also believe that there aren’t now any truths to be known about what creatures will freely do in the future. God’s “failure” to know what you will freely do then would count against his omniscience no more than does his “failure” to know that 2+2 = 796: In neither case is the proposition in question (now) true and so in neither case is it the kind of proposition that can (now) be known. But while the assumption that freedom is incompatible with foreknowledge doesn’t undermine God’s omniscience, it is highly debatable. In fact, my sense is that most theists reject this assumption. Indeed, traditionally, many theists have supposed that free action is not only compatible with foreknowledge, but also with divine determinism: That one can be free even if God’s decrees causally determine you do the action in question. How can one be free if divine decrees, issued long before one is born, causally determine what one does? I don’t know. That position — compatibilism about freedom and determinism — has always seemed very implausible to me. But even among those who join me in rejecting compatibilism about freedom and determinism, many (and I think most) accept the compatibility of freedom and foreknowledge.

If you believe that God knows ahead of time who will freely accept him in this life, then you must not really be an incompatibilist about freedom and foreknowledge, and you should have no objection to supposing that God can know ahead of time who will freely accept Him in the life to come. Thus, this objection will have carry no weight with you.

If, on the other hand, you hold that foreknowledge is incompatible with freedom, and thus hold that God does not know what people will freely do even in this life, then you should be aware that you are holding a minority opinion (at least among Christians, but I think also among philosophers, both Christian or non-Christian), and if you use this incompatibilism — let’s call incompatibilism regarding freedom and foreknowledge zealous incompatibilism, to distinguish it from the milder view that freedom is incompatible with pre-determination –, together with fervent exclusivism, in objecting to the universalist stance, then you should be aware that your argument is resting on an assumption that is highly debatable, to put it rather mildly. So it certainly isn’t anything of a “killer” objection to the universalist stance. As far as assessing the strength of the objection to universalism that can be obtained by these worries about freedom goes, that’s the important point: There is no strong objection here, since the objection is based on such a controversial position — indeed, on two highly debatable positions: fervent exclusivism and zealous incompatibilism.

Nevertheless, I myself am somewhat attracted toward these controversial views. For those of you who join me in finding these positions appealing, despite their zealous/fervent nature, here are a couple of options for how to put zealous incompatibilism together with fervent exclusivism (or at least something close to it), and universalism (or at least something close to it) into a coherent package of views. A way to think about these two options is that one (perhaps) compromises a bit on universalism, the other on fervent exclusivism.

Option 1: Holding very firmly to both zealous incompatibilism (freedom is incompatible with foreknowledge) and fervent exclusivism (in order to be saved, one must freely accept Christ), one can hold that, while it may not be absolutely certain, it is OVERWHELMINGLY probable that all will eventually accept Christ and be saved, and the probability that any will resist forever is VANISHINGLY small. After all, God will be on the case, and will have as much time as He needs. While it is true that some are heading in the completely wrong direction, and give no sign that, left to their own devices, they will do anything but accelerate their progress in that wrong direction, they will not be left to their own devices. There are actual instances in this life of breathtakingly dramatic turn-arounds, and God does intervene to bring people around in this life (without violating their freedom, according to the fervent exclusivist). So once we jettison that disastrous and quite unsupported view that death is the end of one’s chances, there’s no reason to doubt that such divine activities will continue in the life to come, nor that they will (eventually, at least) be successful in yielding free acceptance.

If one takes this option, I think one can still be counted as a universalist. After all, you believe it is overwhelmingly probable that all will be saved, and in contested theological matters, we can’t expect to reach beyond that level of certainty anyway. (Indeed, due to the usual causes — human fallibility on such tough questions — we’re not even going to get up to that level of certainty, nor even close to it, on this or any other tough matter, anyway.) But this does seem to compromise on universalism a bit, because one is not only admitting that one could (of course!) be wrong about the matter in question, but also that according to the position one holds (however firmly or tentatively), there is some (VANISHINGLY small, but still existent) objective chance that not all will be saved. Not even God knows absolutely for certain that all will be saved.

And this gives rise to a sticky question about whether God would have revealed that all will be saved if He was not absolutely certain that this would be so. It’s easy to feel uncomfortable about saying that’s what God did — even if He was amazingly close to being absolutely certain that what we was revealing to us is true.

Option 2: God could pick some time in the distant future — a time far enough off that it is overwhelmingly probable that all will have freely accepted salvation by then, given the (non-freedom-violating) means of persuasion God intends to employ — and resolve to at that time compel acceptance of any hold-outs that are then left. These would then be saved by their acceptance, though their acceptance might not be as valuable, given that it was not free. Thus, God can be absolutely certain, and can therefore responsibly reveal to us, that all will be saved. (There are many variations of this story that you might think up and think about for yourself. For instance: God could pick different times for different individuals, etc. Of course, any such story will be highly speculative, and so one probably shouldn’t invest any confidence in any such tale. Still, these can be helpful stories in that they show various ways that certain combinations of views can be made true, and thus can show the views themselves to be compatible, even if one can’t be certain of the details of just how it will be worked out. In this case, these stories illustrate ways that zealous incompatibilism and universalism — and even foreknown universalism — can both be true even while the value and importance of human freedom is respected to a great degree.)

Now, this position does give up on fervent exclusivism (though not on strong exclusivism or exclusivism simpliciter), since it holds that one can be saved even if one does not freely accept Christ. Nevertheless, it does go a fair way toward accommodating the motivation behind fervent exclusivism — the importance of human freedom — in that it has God adopting a plan by which He goes to tremendous lengths to attain free acceptance from every person. And those who hold this view can still maintain that it is far better and more valuable for a person to freely accept than for this acceptance to be coerced in a freedom-negating way. But it does deny that one must freely accept in order to be saved, and thus it does deny fervent exclusivism. Still, it’s worth considering, for it gives those who might otherwise insist on fervent exclusivism a compromise position which doesn’t simply write free acceptance off as unimportant. This potential compromise position is especially valuable if I’m right about how one would likely come to be a fervent exclusivist in the first place: That there’s no substantial scriptural support for fervent exclusivism itself, but that fervent exclusivism is the likely result of combining strong exclusivism (for which there is significant support) with a belief one might have that human freedom is important. Since the compromise position respects the importance of human freedom, it is likely to be an attractive compromise.

[Some fine print about a very tricky matter I just skated over above: It is worth noting that this view does depend on God’s being able to foreknow with complete certainty what He Himself will do. Many who hold that God cannot foreknow what we will freely do seem to suppose that He can know what He Himself will do. This gets too complicated for me to go into in detail here. But whatever else you believe, if you think that God cannot know with complete certainty what He Himself will do, then, so long as you think that God will always have the power to make us miserable (which His omnipotence seems to assure), then you will be stuck with thinking that God cannot know with certainty that we won’t be miserable at some later time. Thus, even those who hold that God cannot foreknow with complete certainty what we will freely do are very strongly motivated to hold that He can foreknow what He Himself will do. This can be because God’s freedom is in important ways different from ours. In any case, when I speak of “zealous incompatibilism,” I mean the position that God’s certain foreknowledge is incompatible with human freedom.]

The above options are sketched out as potentially helpful guides for those who are attracted to certain combinations of views involving freedom, foreknowledge, and salvation. It’s important to reemphasize in closing the important point reached several paragraphs above: that there is no strong objection to universalism that can be squeezed out of these thoughts — at least not in any way that I can see."
 
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Cormack

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Homosexuality is forbidden by the scriptures, the abolishment of slavery is not.

That’s the point though, unlike in the case of same sex marriage, which does have a logically valid condemnation in the form of scripture prohibiting same sex intimacy, there’s no such proof in the case of slavery, indentured servitude and the like.

There’s no real condemnation of the Roman practise, and to argue that the retreat of slavery was implicitly God given because Western nations ended the practise in every form, then comes the end of traditional marriage question.

In short I’m writing just because culture does away with something, that doesn’t mean it’s within the desire of God that the practice is done away with.

Arguing that the Bible teaches a robust anti homosexual ethic (re sexual contact, not people,) and as a consequence gay marriage gets blown up in the process, that makes total sense to me. The same can’t seem to be said for Greek and Roman “slavery” though, not only is there no direct ethic against the practice, but there’s also implicate support for the whole enterprise by the scripture instructing masters on how to care for their servants.

Jewish law pertaining to slavery could be done away with in that the law is nailed to the cross, transatlantic style chattel slavers can be condemns so far as it’s not a feature of the Bible, but it’s the Roman form of slavery that seems to get a free pass here.

ON TOPIC It’s okay with me to assume God saves everyone. Portions of the Bible are best argued for by way of the Christian universalist perspective, in fact, Pauline universalism often gets successfully argued for when there’s an open exchange on the subject.

There needn’t be something inappropriate or immoral about assuming upon the same thing that God Himself desires to be the end result of every man.

Although it’s up to everyone to quietly and carefully judge the intentions of their own heart, as the judgment hungry hell fire enthusiast is just as wrong for wishing harm upon others as is the cowardly universalist who wants all to be saved to ensure only that they are saved.

Having Gods heart is what matters, His hearts desire is that nobody perish, that all be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth.
 
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Hmm

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the cowardly universalist who wants all to be saved to ensure only that they are saved.

I never guessed there was such a species but, now you say that, I think there probably is! It doesn't include me of course! Although seriously, I really don't think it does. I can honestly say that I have no particular desire to live forever. I don't know why, I just don't, although I'd be just as okay about it if I did. I do want other people and animals and even trees etc to live forever though if that's a transformed and (I exclude the trees here) a completely happy life. For myself, I'm equally easy about annihilation or salvation but I really don't want to be tortured forever, partly because I don't like pain but also because I wouldn't want to give Team Hell the satisfaction :)
 
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Cormack

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It’s the other side of the coin, @Hmm. For the nifty footwork we can do against the hellfire screechers, they could do the same against us. They don’t, largely because they have their preloaded verses that they like to copy and paste into every discussion. It gains neither side much traction and users move on with their lives.

I’ve known people who (having suffered terrible abuses in life) really want hell to be real, and they want the people who so cruelly took advantage of them to pay for their evils. That feeling is so raw and personal that I hope I never truly understand it, because that would mean I’ve been as thoroughly victimised myself.

Still to see and hold onto the picture of Christ, both the innocent victim of man’s evils and prepared to forgive those who wronged Him, that’s something else. Jesus is amazing.
 
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Ligurian

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Rev 21:25 "Its gates will never be shut..."

Revelation 21:10-27 And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of Heaven from God, ...[24] And the nations of them which are saved shall walk in the light of it: and the kings of the Earth do bring their glory and honour into it.[25] And the gates of it shall not be shut at all by day: for there shall be no night there.[26] And they shall bring the glory and honour of the nations into it.[27] And there shall in no wise enter into it any thing that defileth, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb's book of life.
 
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