Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
When Christ talked about the eunuchs in some of the scripture surrounding the subject here, I wondered how they did that back then?
*shudder
There is a reason you don't answer my questions...maybe you'll figure out that reason eventually.
I back-tracked to find what you were upset about, and found something you said, which could have set him off...
"Divorce was allowed in the old testament...Christ made some changes."
No, Jesus brought it back into line with the original in the Garden of Eden. Okay, so He did add the same thing that Moses did - sexual infidelity. It really was the Rabbis and their writing of the Talmid that they could divorce for "any reason" as long as they gave her a writ of divorcement to prove she was divorced. Jesus corrected that fast!
Luckily, something I don't have to worry about.
Oh, to reply to your post, I didn't really think I set him off, I just think some of the posters here are in a divorce/ remarried situation and don't like the stiff stance against it...can't really blame them...it's so disheartening to think people may have to be alone for the rest of their lives
Something I'd rather not even think about, accept to say, maybe they just knocked them over the head before surgery...hope so anyway, if that's the best they could do.
I mean...OUCH!
There are so many posters and sometimes I can't remember who believes what, so forgive me for asking, but do you believe God permits ANY remarriages after divorce, or not?
Yes, according to the rules. Assuming the "in the case of fornication" means an unfaithful spouse and not that the woman was not a virgin...that's a reason. If it does mean the latter, then for that reason. And if the divorced spouse dies of course.
Wish I could come up with more.
Because they are fulfilled forever IN CHRIST.So why are there laws that don't apply to us anymore if they endure forever? How do you explain that.
So... Jesus actually agreed with the Law of Moses as given in Deuteronomy 24:1-4!I back-tracked to find what you were upset about, and found something you said, which could have set him off...
"Divorce was allowed in the old testament...Christ made some changes."
No, Jesus brought it back into line with the original in the Garden of Eden. Okay, so He did add the same thing that Moses did - sexual infidelity. It really was the Rabbis and their writing of the Talmid that they could divorce for "any reason" as long as they gave her a writ of divorcement to prove she was divorced. Jesus corrected that fast!
In Jewish culture they were. But Corinth was not Jewish. They did not have the same customs about betrothal... Therefore, again, we need to let the context define the terms.Yes, the "that the woman was not a virgin" is covered in 1 Cor. 7 "Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. 28 But even if you do marry, you have not sinned." Betrothals can be broken if the woman turned out not to be a virgin." Betrothed virgins were also called a "wife."
The law allowed for the husband to make an accusation against his wife, based only on suspicion... and if she was proven guilty, she could be stoned.Yes, according to the rules. Assuming the "in the case of fornication" means an unfaithful spouse and not that the woman was not a virgin...that's a reason. If it does mean the latter, then for that reason. And if the divorced spouse dies of course.
Wish I could come up with more.
I did answer your question, you just dont like the answer.There is a reason you don't answer my questions...maybe you'll figure out that reason eventually.
So... Jesus actually agreed with the Law of Moses as given in Deuteronomy 24:1-4!
That's exactly what I've been saying.
So... Jesus actually agreed with the Law of Moses as given in Deuteronomy 24:1-4!
That's exactly what I've been saying.
In Jewish culture they were. But Corinth was not Jewish. They did not have the same customs about betrothal... Therefore, again, we need to let the context define the terms.
Throughout the chapter, "wife" meant someone you were actually married to.
Not someone you were going to marry.
Since Corinth was a Gentile church, Paul would have made it clear, if he was referring to the Jewish betrothal period.
Of course He did, He didn't fulfill any sexual infidelity laws! They have all been brought forward and reiterated in the New Testament.
" 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from things strangled, and from blood."
These are the laws brought forward. However, look closely. All of those were in force before Moses! Nothing in the law of Moses was new for us. But, the law of Moses did enlighten us to particulars, especially about sex. (Incest, homosexuality, beastiality). We even went back to the laws given to Noah regarding meat and the blood. Now nothing is unclean. So even though the laws of Moses were holy and informative, we have gone back to God's eternal laws.
Now we don't:
Keep the Sabbath and all the rules attached. - replaced by Jesus' fulfillment and grace.
Eat only clean meat - replaced by the gospel going to the Gentiles (which unclean meat represented.)
Ceremonial feasts - replaced by Jesus' fulfillment.
Yes, I look at the law of Moses for particulars on sexual sins, which includes fornication, adultery, and remarriage after divorce. These were brought forward. But I no longer look to see if I can eat a certain meat. Or which day I should worship God. I'm in constant communion with the Holy Spirit. And I know you agree on some of this, but others are reading too...
Who is to say the word Paul DID use was NOT the word the Corinthians commonly used to say "divorced from" in the 1st century?Did they have divorce in Corinth? Why not use a word they were familiar with? But, even so, it is interesting he covered the only reason for divorce was if the pagan left. Maybe Paul expected the Christian to forgive their spouse for infidelity if they wanted to stay.
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?