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Your thoughts on Easter and anything that you can add to this? I came across this yesterday. If I have posted this in the wrong forum I apologize and am open to it being moved to wherever is needed.
 

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False 100%. It is the fulfillment of Passover. There is evidence of this from at least 165AD.

This should be moved to a different forum, as Christian Advice is not for debate, and is only for advice on situations where Christians are asking for help.
 
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Solomons Porch

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False 100%. It is the fulfillment of Passover. There is evidence of this from at least 165AD.

This should be moved to a different forum, as Christian Advice is not for debate, and is only for advice on situations where Christians are asking for help.
I am fine with it being moved, are you able to move it?
 
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Ken Rank

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View attachment 191172

Your thoughts on Easter and anything that you can add to this? I came across this yesterday. If I have posted this in the wrong forum I apologize and am open to it being moved to wherever is needed.

With love I share this....

I reject this completely and I do not take part in Easter as most Christians do. :) Ishtar (Akkadian, Assyrian and Babylonian) was from 3500BC (ish) and with those now dead civilizations, she died out as well. She was a Semitic goddess of love, sex, fertility, etc. The Greek goddess of love was not Ishtar, it was Aphrodite, also known or tied to Venus. You can see there is no etymological connection... no chance. We can't tie Ishtar and Venus etymologically speaking. At the time of Constantine... who is wrongly credited with bringing Ishtar worship into the church.... we are dealing with Venus, not Ishtar.. there was no Ishtar anymore.

I want to throw this in here.... there is a letter that has been going around the internet for years now, it is called, "The letter on the keeping of Easter." It is a REAL letter written by Constantine, and in it he is clearly trying to create a new method of setting the date for Easter and thus, with this idea that Easter = Ishtar.... Constantine is credit with changing God's time and introducing Ishtar worship into the church. That is flat out ridiculous... and trust me, I am no fan of Constantine. Why is it ridiculous? Because we still have the letter, it is written in Greek and the word Easter is >>NOT<< even in the letter. Which should be expected, it wasn't a word yet (but I will come back to that point). The word in that letter is Pascha... the Greek transliteration of Pesach.... the Hebrew word for Passover. Constantine was trying to figure out how to set a date for Passover without having to wait on the Jews to announce when Nisan 1 was. Incidentally, they did >>NOT<< come to any decision at that Council, and the timing issue wasn't settled until Laodicea in 367AD (ish). That was 30+ years AFTER Constantine's death. :) Anyway... you wouldn't believe me if I told you all what method of determination they adopted. Anyway....

As for the bunnies and eggs being tied to Ishtar... there is >>NO<< historical evidence of this at all. Just internet claims and people repeating what is in a few books written by people with a bias against the church. The Easter bunny is most likely from 19th century short stories and thus a cultural addition to the day. The coloring of the eggs has no historical tie at all to paganism. The farthest back we can trace the colored egg with historical evidence is to the Eastern Orthodox tradition of coloring an egg red in honor of a story tied to Mary Magdalene. Whether we believe the story or not, the practice of them coloring an egg red at Pascha (Passover but centered on the resurrection not the week of Unleavened Bread) is proven back to the 4th century and we have no evidence of any practice of the same going deeper in time. And when I say "evidence" I mean time period evidence where we have something in writing from the period in question that ties the claim to the time period. If 5500 years ago Ishtar followers rolled eggs down hills as some sign of fertility... we should have something written and preserved from THAT TIME PERIOD that makes that claim. We don't... the first claims are post messiah.... probably close to 4000 YEARS after Ishtar existed.

Where does the word "Easter" come from? The same place the word "Passover" and "atonement" came from... we invented the word because we had a concept that we lacked a word for. When the gospel reached what is now England, there was no word for "resurrection." The idea of a man raising from the grave was a foreign idea to these people and they didn't have a word for it, so they invented a word for it. They took the word in their language which was tied to the idea of "rising." The word they chose was 'east' because the sun would RISE in the east. So you take "east" and add the suffix "er" and the word easter takes on the meaning "riser." The riser... the one who raised from the grave... Easter is simply the earliest Old English form of the word "resurrection." It has NOTHING to do with Ishtar, nothing. And please note, 15 years ago I wrote an article calling Easter, "Beaster." :) I was wrong... I have repented.

If anyone wants to dig around, go online and Google "Anglo-Saxon Dictionary" and look at all the entries with the word Easter in it, it is eye opening. We need to stop attributing evil to people who we don't know for sure had evil intent. I fear we come close to sinning if we don't cross that line by doing this.
 
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Col 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Col 2:10
And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Col 2:11
In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Col 2:12
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Col 2:13
And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

Col 2:14
Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

Col 2:15
And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

Col 2:16
Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:

Col 2:17
Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
 
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Left

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How do I request for this thread to be moved to proper location?

If it was me, I'd report my own OP and say "This is the OP asking for my thread to be moved to a proper location."
 
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View attachment 191172

Your thoughts on Easter and anything that you can add to this? I came across this yesterday. If I have posted this in the wrong forum I apologize and am open to it being moved to wherever is needed.

Short answer, everything mentioned in that graphic is objectively false.

Long answer: The term "Easter" is derived from the Anglo-Saxon month Eosturmonath, which corresponds to the Latin month of April. This is mentioned in the 8th century work by the Anglo-Saxon Christian monk Bede known as The Reckoning of Time. In the relevant place in the text Bede explains the names of the Anglo-Saxon months and their supposed etymologies. He mentions Eosturmonath, which he says was named for a formerly worshiped goddess named Eostre; but that in his own time the month was now celebrated by the Anglo-Saxons as the Paschal Month. Since the Anglo-Saxons had been converted to Christianity several centuries earlier they had abandoned their pagan ways and been practicing Christianity for some time.

This is the only mention of a goddess named Eostre in the historical record. No other mention exists, and no evidence exists, not even in the archeological record; there are no cultic sites dedicated to this supposed-goddess. The fact that Bede is our one and only source is enough for some to speculate that Bede may have been wrong, and no such goddess was ever worshiped. Though over a thousand years after Bede Jacob Grimm (of Grimm's fairytales fame) speculated, using Bede as his source (as there is no other source) that the Anglo-Saxon Eostre may have been called Ostera in northern Germany (the name is pure conjecture, no goddess by Ostera is found in any records of any kind anywhere); as a way of explaining why the name of the Paschal Feast is known as Ostern in German even as it is known as Easter in English.

At this point it's important to point out that the term "Easter" in English (and "Ostern" in German) is exceptionally unique. Throughout the historic Christian world (and beyond) the name of the Paschal Feast is almost universally a transliteration of the Greek Pascha, for example in French it is Pâques, in Swedish it is Påsk, in Italian it is Pasqua, in Arabic it is Fish, in Ethiopian it is Fasika, in Welsh it is Pasg, and so on and so forth.

This means that there was no holiday known as "Easter" until the late middle ages, and then, only in the English language as a peculiar way of describing what the rest of the Christian world, from Ireland to Spain to Egypt to Western China knew as a variant of "Pascha".

Constantine didn't do anything. Not a thing. However one of the issues which the Council of Nicea did address was a standardized means of calculating the Paschal Feast, there had at that point been several methods of calculating when to celebrate it. Even more history: since the early 2nd century there were largely two major schools of thought, in places like Rome and Egypt the Paschal Feast was kept as a moveable feast that was always honored on a Sunday, because Christ had been raised from the dead on a Sunday; however in places like Anatolia (modern Turkey) the practice was to celebrate it on the same day as the Jewish Passover, on the Jewish calendar date of Nissan 14. This later position was known as Quartodecimanism, literally meaning Fourteenism. In the early 2nd century the Roman bishop Anicetus and the bishop of Smyrna Polycarp met and discussed many things finding that they had virtually all things in common except when to celebrate the Paschal Feast, they both appealed to the fact that this was what had been done where they are from since the beginning and decided this was not reason enough to stop communion. And so both practices existed, though as time went on Quartodecimanism became less popular even those regions it was formerly normative. At the Council of Nicea the gathered bishops, from all over the eastern portion of the Roman Empire (virtually no Western bishops were at the council, the bishop of Rome himself being absent due to age and health concerns and represented by two deacons) concluded that the method of calculating the Feast by the churches in Egypt (which was also how virtually all churches everywhere were doing it anyway) was to be the standard.

Constantine had no role in this. Constantine didn't choose or decide anything, here merely facilitated the event of the bishops gathering at Nicea, the purpose of which was to address the theological controversy surrounding the teachings of Arius; the issue on the Paschal Computus was tertiary at best, but it did establish the computus which became the normative way of calculating Pascha even to the present day.

As for the "Ishtar" connection, that's pure fancy. Ishtar was a Semitic goddess, even granting Bede's correctness concerning the etymology of Easter coming from Eosturmonath coming from Eostre the Anglo-Saxon religion had precisely no relationship with the religious traditions of ancient Mesopotamia. The connection is drawn by pure imagination based upon the fact that if you squint your eyes and tilt your head "Easter" and "Ishtar" almost-kinda-sorta-maybe sound vaguely similar-ish and one could imagine a connection if one tried really, really hard to make one. But there is no connection, it is the product of an over-active imagination with precisely zero evidence.

"But isn't Ishtar a fertility goddess, and isn't Eostre associated with bunnies and eggs?" Ishtar was a goddess of fertility, but there's nothing to associate the supposed Anglo-Saxon Eostre with bunnies, eggs, springtime, fertility, or anything. Again, our one and only source is Bede, and the only thing Bede tells us is that the month of Eosturmonath was named after this goddess. He tells us nothing more than this, we have a name, that's all we have. We can speculate all we want, but idle speculation is all it would be. And, again, it is entirely possible that Bede was mistaken even on this point, as it is very strange that there should be precisely no evidence of any kind that the Anglo-Saxons worshiped such a goddess, no sites of worship in the archeological record, no images, or records of any kind.

So, in the end, everything in the graphic is pure falsehood. And easily demonstrated to be false. Anyone interested is capable of finding all this information for themselves, with a bit of searching one can find Bede's Reckoning of Time and search it themselves (that's what I did, I've read the work first hand). And if one bothers to try and find sources for the claims made, they usually don't exist at all (that is, claims are made without any sources or citations given), or they end up going back to sources which themselves make claims without any sources or citations given--such as Alexander Hislop and his craptastic piece of nonsense known as The Two Babylons, which makes numerous false claims which Hislop seems to have pulled straight out of his hindquarters. Hislop is also the inventor of the Nimrod-Semiramis myth--if you've ever heard that Nimrod's wife's name was Semiramis and their child's name was Tammuz then you can owe that to Alexander Hislop who made it all up out of whole cloth.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Ken Rank

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Short answer, everything mentioned in that graphic is objectively false.

Long answer: The term "Easter" is derived from the Anglo-Saxon month Eosturmonath, which corresponds to the Latin month of April. This is mentioned in the 8th century work by the Anglo-Saxon Christian monk Bede known as The Reckoning of Time. In the relevant place in the text Bede explains the names of the Anglo-Saxon months and their supposed etymologies. He mentions Eosturmonath, which he says was named for a formerly worshiped goddess named Eostre; but that in his own time the month was now celebrated by the Anglo-Saxons as the Paschal Month. Since the Anglo-Saxons had been converted to Christianity several centuries earlier they had abandoned their pagan ways and been practicing Christianity for some time.

This is the only mention of a goddess named Eostre in the historical record. No other mention exists, and no evidence exists, not even in the archeological record; there are no cultic sites dedicated to this supposed-goddess. The fact that Bede is our one and only source is enough for some to speculate that Bede may have been wrong, and no such goddess was ever worshiped. Though over a thousand years after Bede Jacob Grimm (of Grimm's fairytales fame) speculated, using Bede as his source (as there is no other source) that the Anglo-Saxon Eostre may have been called Ostera in northern Germany (the name is pure conjecture, no goddess by Ostera is found in any records of any kind anywhere); as a way of explaining why the name of the Paschal Feast is known as Ostern in German even as it is known as Easter in English.

At this point it's important to point out that the term "Easter" in English (and "Ostern" in German) is exceptionally unique. Throughout the historic Christian world (and beyond) the name of the Paschal Feast is almost universally a transliteration of the Greek Pascha, for example in French it is Pâques, in Swedish it is Påsk, in Italian it is Pasqua, in Arabic it is Fish, in Ethiopian it is Fasika, in Welsh it is Pasg, and so on and so forth.

This means that there was no holiday known as "Easter" until the late middle ages, and then, only in the English language as a peculiar way of describing what the rest of the Christian world, from Ireland to Spain to Egypt to Western China knew as a variant of "Pascha".

Constantine didn't do anything. Not a thing. However one of the issues which the Council of Nicea did address was a standardized means of calculating the Paschal Feast, there had at that point been several methods of calculating when to celebrate it. Even more history: since the early 2nd century there were largely two major schools of thought, in places like Rome and Egypt the Paschal Feast was kept as a moveable feast that was always honored on a Sunday, because Christ had been raised from the dead on a Sunday; however in places like Anatolia (modern Turkey) the practice was to celebrate it on the same day as the Jewish Passover, on the Jewish calendar date of Nissan 14. This later position was known as Quartodecimanism, literally meaning Fourteenism. In the early 2nd century the Roman bishop Anicetus and the bishop of Smyrna Polycarp met and discussed many things finding that they had virtually all things in common except when to celebrate the Paschal Feast, they both appealed to the fact that this was what had been done where they are from since the beginning and decided this was not reason enough to stop communion. And so both practices existed, though as time went on Quartodecimanism became less popular even those regions it was formerly normative. At the Council of Nicea the gathered bishops, from all over the eastern portion of the Roman Empire (virtually no Western bishops were at the council, the bishop of Rome himself being absent due to age and health concerns and represented by two deacons) concluded that the method of calculating the Feast by the churches in Egypt (which was also how virtually all churches everywhere were doing it anyway) was to be the standard.

Constantine had no role in this. Constantine didn't choose or decide anything, here merely facilitated the event of the bishops gathering at Nicea, the purpose of which was to address the theological controversy surrounding the teachings of Arius; the issue on the Paschal Computus was tertiary at best, but it did establish the computus which became the normative way of calculating Pascha even to the present day.

As for the "Ishtar" connection, that's pure fancy. Ishtar was a Semitic goddess, even granting Bede's correctness concerning the etymology of Easter coming from Eosturmonath coming from Eostre the Anglo-Saxon religion had precisely no relationship with the religious traditions of ancient Mesopotamia. The connection is drawn by pure imagination based upon the fact that if you squint your eyes and tilt your head "Easter" and "Ishtar" almost-kinda-sorta-maybe sound vaguely similar-ish and one could imagine a connection if one tried really, really hard to make one. But there is no connection, it is the product of an over-active imagination with precisely zero evidence.

"But isn't Ishtar a fertility goddess, and isn't Eostre associated with bunnies and eggs?" Ishtar was a goddess of fertility, but there's nothing to associate the supposed Anglo-Saxon Eostre with bunnies, eggs, springtime, fertility, or anything. Again, our one and only source is Bede, and the only thing Bede tells us is that the month of Eosturmonath was named after this goddess. He tells us nothing more than this, we have a name, that's all we have. We can speculate all we want, but idle speculation is all it would be. And, again, it is entirely possible that Bede was mistaken even on this point, as it is very strange that there should be precisely no evidence of any kind that the Anglo-Saxons worshiped such a goddess, no sites of worship in the archeological record, no images, or records of any kind.

So, in the end, everything in the graphic is pure falsehood. And easily demonstrated to be false. Anyone interested is capable of finding all this information for themselves, with a bit of searching one can find Bede's Reckoning of Time and search it themselves (that's what I did, I've read the work first hand). And if one bothers to try and find sources for the claims made, they usually don't exist at all (that is, claims are made without any sources or citations given), or they end up going back to sources which themselves make claims without any sources or citations given--such as Alexander Hislop and his craptastic piece of nonsense known as The Two Babylons, which makes numerous false claims which Hislop seems to have pulled straight out of his hindquarters. Hislop is also the inventor of the Nimrod-Semiramis myth--if you've ever heard that Nimrod's wife's name was Semiramis and their child's name was Tammuz then you can owe that to Alexander Hislop who made it all up out of whole cloth.

-CryptoLutheran
Guys, take CryptoLutherans post here... compare it to mine above... where each of us mention something the other doesn't, fill in the blank and between the two the history is pretty well covered. There is >>NOTHING<< pagan about Easter. And the proof doesn't even have to be in the history, or the etymology.... just go to a church on Easter Sunday and watched and listen. WHO are they exalting? What are they giving thanks for? God and the risen Son, or Ishtar and fertility? This "lie" is perpetrated by the Adversary and we cannot allow it to divide us.
 
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All4Christ

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I am fine with it being moved, are you able to move it?
I can't, but you can report your post and ask for a move. All moves need to be done via reports. :)
 
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Are you telling me that the Easter Bunny may not be true? This may have a catastrophic affect on my life! It was bad enough that the tooth fairy is a myth and that when the Bermuda Triangle moved to Alaska Santa Claus disappeared, but this!!!!
 
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This is a sermon for Pascha (i.e. Easter in the western English speaking church) in the mid second century...

St. Melito's Sermon On the Pasch | Lenten Season

If you read it, you can see the seamless transition of thought from the Jewish Passover to the fulfilled Christian Passover (which is essentially the translation of Pascha).
 
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Chocolate is commonly used in Easter, which is the same color as poo. Ancient MesoAmericans had a festival of the sacred poo and the worshipping of the devil. It's known that chocolate is from the Americas, but few people know the secret of the sacred poo. They worshipped a God named Poo-h (h is silent is spanish) believed to be made by poop from the gods. MesoAmericans ate chocolate to unite themselves with devil Poo-h. The tradition continues every Halloween, Easter and Valentines day. When you eat chocolate, you are worshipping the devil.

If you find this post beyond absurd, that is how all of these silly things sound.
 
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Col 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Col 2:10
And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Col 2:11
In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Col 2:12
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Col 2:13
And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

Col 2:14
Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

Col 2:15
And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

Col 2:16
Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:

Col 2:17
Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
Col 2 is actually Paul telling them not to let anyone judge them for actually keeping the Sabbath and Holy days, not the other way around, since they were new gentile converts that came from Paganism. If you start at verse 1 and read down to verse 16, the context is clear.

Colossians 2:8
8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.


Verse 8 alone proves vs 16 cant be saying dont let anyone judge you for not keeping it. Is the Holy Days like Passover a vain deceit, a tradition of men or rudiments of the world and not after Christ.
 
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Chocolate is commonly used in Easter, which is the same color as poo. Ancient MesoAmericans had a festival of the sacred poo and the worshipping of the devil. It's known that chocolate is from the Americas, but few people know the secret of the sacred poo. They worshipped a God named Poo-h (h is silent is spanish) believed to be made by poop from the gods. MesoAmericans ate chocolate to unite themselves with devil Poo-h. The tradition continues every Halloween, Easter and Valentines day. When you eat chocolate, you are worshipping the devil.

If you find this post beyond absurd, that is how all of these silly things sound.
So, sacred poo doesn't stink?
 
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IF a Christian doesnt see something wrong with a candy egg laying rabbit being tied to their Messiah, they need to really study the true origins of some of the things that are being done in Easter and how they were just rebadged by the RCC.

If you have access to the internet, there is NO EXCUSE for thinking Easter eggs and bunnies make Easter pagan, or that Easter comes from a pagan holiday. The same goes for anyone with a decent education or even experience in the world.

It baffles my mind how people can be so short sighted. Anglo-Saxon cultures celebrate Easter with eggs and bunnies. There rest of the world does not. Therefore, to suggest or imply, as people sometimes do, that Easter was a pagan holiday "rebadged" or remade show a profound ignorance.

Easter was being celebrated by Christians long before the Anglo-Saxons converted to Christianity. When Anglo-Saxons converted to Christianity, they celebrated Easter in their own cultural way, which included eggs and bunnies. It is amazing that people think how we celebrate a holiday must be how the rest of the world celebrates in and indeed, how it has always been celebrated. The worst part is, even after reading this post, I seriously doubt you and others even "get it."
 
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