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How is it misleading? Heb. 5:9. "How readest thou?"Aaron11 said:I think saying that obedience is necessary for salvation is misleading. I think that people who choose Christ are saved and I think that people who choose Christ follow His way.
However I think that if you are going to say that obedience is necessary for salvation, you have to be a little more specific, because no one is going to obey God perfectly.
And this is true for us both. If you are not concerning yourself of those situations then you can not make general statements that include those people. For instance the out and out statement that baptism is necessary for salvation. You could say that it is for you, but you can not make a general statement like that without including these cases, of which we are not sure.heb12-2 said:Since those cases are not your situation, why not be baptized "for the remission of sins" (Ac. 2:38) today, so you don't have to concern yourself with those scenarios?
Why not according to Jn. 3? What about verse 5? "What think ye?"YAQUBOS said:Peace be with you!
I believe Baptism is very important for Salvation, but not according to John 3.
The Lord bless you.
Yaqubos
Obeying Christ is showing your faith. Living faith has the product of obedience. However, when you say that baptism is necessary for salvation, it gives the impression that baptism is somehow what opens that door and pays for your salvation. I do not agree with the impression and the connotation of that phrase. That is why I choose to word my impression of the gospel differently.heb12-2 said:How is it misleading? Heb. 5:9. "How readest thou?"
I am not trying to be rude, but I really despise old english... could we speak in modern english?heb12-2 said:How is it misleading? Heb. 5:9. "How readest thou?"
Why can't you say for sure?Aaron11 said:So, the conclusion to be drawn is...
Is baptism ABSOLUTELY necessary for every person who died after Christ did? Can not say yes for sure, can not say no for sure.
If baptism is "for the remission of sins" (Ac. 2:38), and one hasn't been baptized, then their sins have not yet been remitted. Why can't we be sure about that? Isn't that what the scriptures say?Aaron11 said:And this is true for us both. If you are not concerning yourself of those situations then you can not make general statements that include those people. For instance the out and out statement that baptism is necessary for salvation. You could say that it is for you, but you can not make a general statement like that without including these cases, of which we are not sure.
What's wrong with wording it the way the scriptures do? "Baptism doth also now save us" (1 Pet. 3:21)Aaron11 said:Obeying Christ is showing your faith. Living faith has the product of obedience. However, when you say that baptism is necessary for salvation, it gives the impression that baptism is somehow what opens that door and pays for your salvation. I do not agree with the impression and the connotation of that phrase. That is why I choose to word my impression of the gospel differently.
"How readest thou?" is a quote of Jesus in Lk. 10:26 (KJV). Is it the KJV that you despise? I don't believe the KJV is the only reliable translation, but it is the one I choose to use. There are many who will not listen to any other, so I save myself the trouble of crossing that hurdle with them and use what all recognize and respect.Aaron11 said:I am not trying to be rude, but I really despise old english... could we speak in modern english?
Sorry. I do not insist. I didn't have to say this in this way. Sorry again.heb12-2 said:Why not according to Jn. 3? What about verse 5? "What think ye?"
I have no problem in saying, "Baptism doth also now save us", because that's what Peter said. (1 Pet. 3:21). The explanation just gives further meaning: that's it's not washing the outside, but the inside, and it's through Christ's resurrection. You said that "Peter was not saying that baptism is what does it". what was he saying that baptism "doth also now" do?Aaron11 said:Becuase that was followed by an explanation. I am fine with saying that with the explanation. However, I am pretty dang sure that Peter was not saying that baptism is what does it. You agree I would hope.
If John 3:5 is not about baptism as you say, then what is it about?YAQUBOS said:It is not about Baptism.
That's fine.Aaron11 said:Just giving you a hard time about the old english.
I apologize. This must not be treated in this way.heb12-2 said:If John 3:5 is not about baptism as you say, then what is it about?
DID YOU READ 2 Peter 3:9heb12-2 said:You say you believe that God said "to get water baptism". Well, could you prove it then? Which passages will you go to?
Why you know most of water baptism verses and you take from spirit baptism as well into the water arguement
You say that "it's not for initial salvation". Could you tell me which verse says that?
all ready have
The 2 Pet. 2:20-22 that you quoted clearly shows that a Christian can sin so as to be lost: "the latter end is worse with them than the beginning." But I don't understand why you brought this verse up. You are right that you are off the subject on that. Let's stick to baptism on this thread.
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