Apparently there is no empirical proof possible to falsify the brain in the vat theorem. No matter what evidence is produced, it always remains a possibility. I saw a logical proof somewhere in a book on epistemology years ago. But i don't think that panpsychism is regarded as a "skeptical alternative" in the sense that brain in the vat theory is, although I may be wrong.Yes, everyone who's made it past their freshman year of college (or seen The Matrix) knows there's no way to really prove that we're not just brains in a vat and that reality might not be really real. Most people move beyond that and realize that absolute proof isn't a realistic requirement for knowledge.
Now you are apparently saying that there is an empirical proof (or a universal empirical test) for consciousness, or at least one that clearly rules out quarks. I think if that is right than the analogy breaks down, because there one theorem (relating to quarks) is empirically related and testable and the other (relating to brains in vats) is not.
So if consciousness is empirically related, and we have a scientifically validated universal empirical test for it or one that rules out quarks, we must know the necessary and sufficient conditions at last to that extent in empirical terms. I am of the mind that scientists do not know them (or they would, as I have said, be all over the internet).
Like I have said btw, I don't think that the presence of a medical designed for consciousness in humans is proof that all non-humans are non-conscious. Or even that it proves that only brains are conscious. If you think it proves that, then provide a syllogism please. If that is not your argument, then what is?
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