C
ContentInHim
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a) You mean 2 Timothy, not Titus.
b) he never defines exactly what he means by the Holy Scriptures. Does it for instance include the Apocrypha, and if not why not?
c) He seems to be talking to people who know the OT. So it seems to be written to a Jewish community, not the increasingly goy community the church rapidly became. If you're not brought up with the Hebrew scriptures, as the non-Jewish believers were not, how does that affect that passage?
You are correct - 2 Timothy. Thanks!
Paul doesn't have to define what he meant by scripture. The Jews don't include the Apocrypha in their scripture - therefore Paul wouldn't have included it. There, that was simple, wasn't it?
Actually, the earliest church was taught the Hebrew scriptures whether they were Hebrew or not. It's what they had - it's the scripture that Paul taught. There was no scripture except that. That was simple also!
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