"Imprecatory" Psalms?

[daveleau]

What is your take on the Imprecatory (as some call them) Psalms? (ie Psa 109, 137)

Imprecatory means that they contain curses to others. In my commentaries, there is debate as to whether these are curses made by David or if they are quoted curses by his enemies. Traditionally, they appear to be taken as curses by David, hence the term "imprecatory". Newer writers seem to be taking other stances, though. I appreciate your thoughts on this subject.

Thanks,
Dave

 

[ClementofRome]

What is your take on the Imprecatory (as some call them) Psalms? (ie Psa 109, 137)

Imprecatory means that they contain curses to others. In my commentaries, there is debate as to whether these are curses made by David or if they are quoted curses by his enemies. Traditionally, they appear to be taken as curses by David, hence the term "imprecatory". Newer writers seem to be taking other stances, though. I appreciate your thoughts on this subject.

Thanks,
Dave

Good question Dave. I believe that these psalms ARE curses by David upon his emenies. He is calling for the wrath of God to come down upon the enemy. This seems perfectly appropriate in light of what had just happened the previous 200-300 years. The taking of the Promised Land from the hands of God-haters (remember Genesis 15, "for the sins of the Amorites is not yet complete"?). Davids military struggles were still with the enemy of God. God, in his infinite knowledge and sovereignty, demands that terribly sinful people be removed to make room for his chosen people. This began with Joshua and continues through the period of the Judges and does not end until the division of the kingdom, which begins the downfall of Israel. As long as Israel remains faithful to Yahweh, he delivers their enemies into their hands....David knew this and begs for God to once again deliver.