~Anastasia~
† Handmaid of God †
- Dec 1, 2013
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My apologies, it's been a busy few days and I had trouble getting time to reply. Also wished to do so on computer, rather than phone, so again, delay.
OK, you have a point that baptism of the Christian sort wasn't going on back then. But what about John the Baptist? He was filled with the Holy Spirit before he was born. Was he not equally in God's grace then, as Mary was at birth? Yet he is not said to be immaculately conceived, is he? And Mary does not have to be in any special relationship with God from the moment of her conception in order to later be the mother of our Lord ... UNLESS there is something about "original sin" which affects her from the moment of conception and cannot be later erased. I have heard that reason put forth by Catholics, but again, that doesn't make sense, if a baptized infant today is in the same state. I fear I'm going around in circles on this. But if we forget the baptized infant, what about John the Baptist? Was he also immaculately conceived, according to Catholicism? I've never heard any speculation that he was. So why could the Virgin Mary not be prepared in the same way he was? What makes the IC necessary?
Again, I should ask, how do you compare the condition of the Virgin Mary at conception, John the Baptist in his mother's womb when he was filled with the Holy Spirit and recognized the Lord, and a baptized infant. Do you consider them all in the same state spiritually? The IC seems to imply something more. Otherwise, why is it necessary as a dogma, and brought up in terms of adoration, etc?
You mentioned above that she was redeemed and saved at conception. But then, if she still had to choose Christ (in terms of recognizing Him as Lord, not just agreeing to give birth to Him), and if she could easily have said no to being His mother, what exactly did the IC do for her? On the one hand it seems to be saying that it did a great deal, and on the other, it seems to make not much difference. I'm not trying to argue, I'm trying to understand what you believe?
I disagree that Christ would necessarily have died a physical death. I believe He died only because He CHOSE to lay down His life, and could have lived even in spite of the Crucifixion, had He so chosen. And if He had lived on, I don't believe He would have ever died of disease or old age. I may be wrong about that, and I don't know the official doctrine on the matter, but what I have heard is the affirmation that He alone had the power to lay down His life, none could take it from Him, and He could take it up again.
Why animals die ... well, again, my opinion, but I tend to believe that animals die as a result of the curse that came upon the earth through the disobedience of Adam. Just as thorns and thistles became part of his existence, and death, I think death likewise passed to all of creation.
I'm trying to understand in what way Mary escaped what consequences through the IC? And how that uniquely prepared her to be the mother of our Lord? And why God could not have done so in any other way, given such examples as John the Baptist? According to Catholicism, at least. (We have our own beliefs on these questions.)
We agree to a point, except that punitive repayment is not strictly necessary. We believe God can forgive and is not constrained to any cosmic rule. However ... due to the nature of sin and the effects of it, suffering is a common result, and can indeed be purifying as well. The other question that comes out of this concerns predestination of Mary but I don't really want to even open that one ... we might likely agree anyway.
I should have moved this to the top, as it might at least answer other questions. Are you actually saying that the Catholic Church teaches that there are other immaculate conceptions besides that of the Virgin Mary? If that is so, I certainly was not aware of that. If that is so, it might make some of your teaching more understandable, even if I still would not strictly agree.
The difference between us is perhaps based on the understanding of Original Sin and its effects. Or at least partly involving that.
Peace to you. We necessarily do not agree, but I don't wish to be antagonistic. I am merely questioning for the sake of trying to understand, though we do have fundamental disagreements between us in what we believe.
Anastasia: But if a baptized infant is in the same state as Mary was after being immaculately conceived, why would God need to preserve her from the moment of conception?
One point here that is obvious is who was going to baptize her? An infant is baptized and saved through the faith of his/her parents. Mary was redeemed and saved at conception through the love and grace of her future Son.
OK, you have a point that baptism of the Christian sort wasn't going on back then. But what about John the Baptist? He was filled with the Holy Spirit before he was born. Was he not equally in God's grace then, as Mary was at birth? Yet he is not said to be immaculately conceived, is he? And Mary does not have to be in any special relationship with God from the moment of her conception in order to later be the mother of our Lord ... UNLESS there is something about "original sin" which affects her from the moment of conception and cannot be later erased. I have heard that reason put forth by Catholics, but again, that doesn't make sense, if a baptized infant today is in the same state. I fear I'm going around in circles on this. But if we forget the baptized infant, what about John the Baptist? Was he also immaculately conceived, according to Catholicism? I've never heard any speculation that he was. So why could the Virgin Mary not be prepared in the same way he was? What makes the IC necessary?
Anastasia: It seems to make the IC unimportant. I think that since Catholicism holds to the IC, it should place Mary in a different category than simply a baptized infant, wouldn't it?
I'm not sure why it would. I in no way would consider baptism unimportant, and in fact we seem to forget at times that a baptism is a miracle. Something miraculous is happening, albeit we cannot see it with our eyes.
Again, I should ask, how do you compare the condition of the Virgin Mary at conception, John the Baptist in his mother's womb when he was filled with the Holy Spirit and recognized the Lord, and a baptized infant. Do you consider them all in the same state spiritually? The IC seems to imply something more. Otherwise, why is it necessary as a dogma, and brought up in terms of adoration, etc?
~Anastasia~ said: ↑
That infant will still need to choose Christ and live a life of faith to have their own salvation, won't they?
And did not Mary as well? Mary had free will just like the rest of us has. The only difference between us and her, is that she chose to be obedient always and never disobedient. She could have very easily have said no to Gabriel. She could have just as easily walked away from the idea of being God the Son's mother, and quite honestly no one could have faulted her here. To live a life on the run, risking a life of being shunned as an adulterous, carry the greatest of burdens of raising her creator.
You mentioned above that she was redeemed and saved at conception. But then, if she still had to choose Christ (in terms of recognizing Him as Lord, not just agreeing to give birth to Him), and if she could easily have said no to being His mother, what exactly did the IC do for her? On the one hand it seems to be saying that it did a great deal, and on the other, it seems to make not much difference. I'm not trying to argue, I'm trying to understand what you believe?
~Anastasia~ said: ↑
While you are saying that Mary was already redeemed by her very conception. My apologies, but I don't think that answers the question why Mary died if she was immaculately conceived?
Because now all men die a physical death. Even Jesus died a physical death, it is what must be now. No matter how righteous one becomes they must die a physical death. In all reality physical death really isn't the punishment for sin, physical death is a transition now. It is spiritual death that is the consequence of sin. Here is a question for you. Why do animals die?
I disagree that Christ would necessarily have died a physical death. I believe He died only because He CHOSE to lay down His life, and could have lived even in spite of the Crucifixion, had He so chosen. And if He had lived on, I don't believe He would have ever died of disease or old age. I may be wrong about that, and I don't know the official doctrine on the matter, but what I have heard is the affirmation that He alone had the power to lay down His life, none could take it from Him, and He could take it up again.
Why animals die ... well, again, my opinion, but I tend to believe that animals die as a result of the curse that came upon the earth through the disobedience of Adam. Just as thorns and thistles became part of his existence, and death, I think death likewise passed to all of creation.
I'm trying to understand in what way Mary escaped what consequences through the IC? And how that uniquely prepared her to be the mother of our Lord? And why God could not have done so in any other way, given such examples as John the Baptist? According to Catholicism, at least. (We have our own beliefs on these questions.)
This is the way I view it, and I believe this is well based off of Church teaching, but seen in a different view point. Sin affects us in three ways: 1) it is the breaking of commandment, and thus there must be a punitive repayment for breaking of said commandment; 2) it is damaging one self, i.e. one wounds their own soul, their own life, their own flesh; and 3) it injures, and may even sever our relationship with God. Relationships are a two way street. Both sides have to want it. God always wants a relationship with us, the question always is do we want it as well. What we call mortal sin, is us turning from God, and choosing something over Him.
Anyway concerning original sin, due to Adam's sin, we human beings are damaged creatures that need healing, but we also are not born with a personal relationship with God. He isn't our Father, only our creator at birth. Normally baptism is the means by which the personal relationship with God is created. In baptism we become children of God, and Jesus' redemptive act is applied to us. Because Mary was chosen before the creation of the world to be the mother of God's Son, at her birth, God called her out to hold the most unique office of all. His Son's mother.
We agree to a point, except that punitive repayment is not strictly necessary. We believe God can forgive and is not constrained to any cosmic rule. However ... due to the nature of sin and the effects of it, suffering is a common result, and can indeed be purifying as well. The other question that comes out of this concerns predestination of Mary but I don't really want to even open that one ... we might likely agree anyway.
Anyway this isn't unique per say, an immaculate conception. Scripture is witness to another one as well in the prophet Jeremiah as it is written in chapter one:
4 Then the word of the Lord came to me, saying:
5 “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you;
Before you were born I sanctified you;
I ordained you a prophet to the nations.”
6 Then said I: “Ah, Lord God!
Behold, I cannot speak, for I am a youth.”
I should have moved this to the top, as it might at least answer other questions. Are you actually saying that the Catholic Church teaches that there are other immaculate conceptions besides that of the Virgin Mary? If that is so, I certainly was not aware of that. If that is so, it might make some of your teaching more understandable, even if I still would not strictly agree.
The difference between us is perhaps based on the understanding of Original Sin and its effects. Or at least partly involving that.
Peace to you. We necessarily do not agree, but I don't wish to be antagonistic. I am merely questioning for the sake of trying to understand, though we do have fundamental disagreements between us in what we believe.
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