We had a post about this a LONG time ago-- about Christ being tempted and what this means. I'll see if I can dig it up later.
In IC XC,
Marjorie
In IC XC,
Marjorie
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Marjorie said:The idea that Mary just "chose" to be free of sin smacks of some form of Pelagianism to me. The belief is instead that Mary was full of the Holy Spirit so she did not sin. It was a perfect and complete cooperation of her will and God's, and she was *chosen* by God, she wasn't just the only human to successfully abide by God's terms-- as if she could do just as well without God's grace. Our difference isn't in how we view Mary's chosenness, but instead in our view of fallen humanity...
In IC XC,
Marjorie
Servus Iesu said:Remember Joseph the 'Orthodox' Bishop who denies the perpetual virginity of Mary. I had an argument with him awhile back over the issue of Pelagianism. He claimed that Pelagius was actually Orthodox and the Pelagius was right and St. Augustine was wrong.
What do real Orthodox actually think about Pelagius and his doctrines?
Marjorie said:Short version:
He was a heretic. We like God's grace and are very big on it.
We also think Augustine went too far in the opposite extreme when countering him, though.
In IC XC,
Marjorie
Servus Iesu said:I believe that sin is not so much human but rather something which robs us of our humanity.
Unified in Christ said:That's exactly St. Paul's doctrine on sin: The turning away of love from God and neighbor toward the self is breaking of communion with the life and truth of God, which cannot be separated from His love. The breaking of this communion with God can be consummated only in death, because nothing created can continue indefinitely to exist of itself. Thus, by the transgression of the first man, the principle of "sin (the devil) entered into the world and through sin death, and so death passed upon all men..." Not only humanity, but all of creation has become subjected to death and corruption by the devil. It is through death and corruption that all of humanity and creation is held captive to the devil and involved in sin, because it is by death that man falls short of his original destiny, which was to love God and neighbor without concern for the self. Man does not die because he is guilty for the sin of Adam. He becomes a sinner because he is yoked to the power of the devil through death and its consequences.
Servus Iesu said:Good to see we agree on something. Does that mean you agree with my conclusion that to be human does not necessitate an ability to sin (specifically in the person of Jesus Christ Our Blessed Lord and Redeemer)?
knee-v said:Just look at Jesus. Fully divine, but also fully human. Yet he never sinned.
Servus Iesu said:I am well aware that Jesus was fully human. This question really stems out of the 'Could Jesus have sinned?' debate. The question is: What does it mean for Jesus to be fully human?
Those who say that Jesus possessed the capability to sin tend to cite the humanity of Jesus as proof that He could have sinned. What I am saying is that I don't believe one must possess the ability to sin to be fully human. This choice is what I think the scholastics referred to as liberty of indifference. It doesn't perfect human liberty, rather it is a weakness of human liberty.
The other issue I have with the notion that Jesus could have sinned is that I believe it lends itself to Nestorianism or perhaps even Arianism. Jesus had two natures but He was ONE person. If Jesus were to sin He would sin in His whole person, human and divine. How can sin enter into a divine person? This seems to me to be an impossibility. Jesus is consubstantial with the Father. The Father can neither sin nor lie, so how can the Son?