BobRyan said:
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The Ten Commandments are included in the LAW of God - included in the LAW of Jer 31:31-33 "
This is the NEW Covenant ...I will write My LAWs on their heart and on their mind" . Jeremiah knew of that Law - so also did his readers.
Hello Bob.
God wrote the law of the Lord on the hearts of the believers, through the
gifts of the Holy Spirit. Love is the law etched into every Christian heart,
love is the goal of all Christian instruction. Not the command to not steal. .
In actual Bible study there is eisegesis "just making up whatever story you like" and there is "exegesis" looking at the details in the text and the intent of the author - for his readers.
Try quoting "you" less - and looking at the Bible more.
In this case the question of exegesis was mentioned - which is how Jeremiah and his readers would have understood the term "My LAW". would they imagine to themselves that the LAW that God spoke on Sinai and wrote on stone and "Added no more" according to scripture -- was "excluded"?? if so you have not come up with the creative "story" for how to imagine such a thing. So you merely "quote you".
Your argument that they would take Lev 19:18 "
Love your neighbor as yourself" and Deut 6:5 "
Love God with all your heart" as Laws to be used to delete God's spoken Word in Ex 20 where it then says in Deut 5 "And He added no more" -- is pure fiction. So you merely 'quote you'.
And we both know it.
Most impressively - so also do your own pro-sunday scholars know it. They know that the Ten Commandments were not deleted by Lev 19:18 or Deut 6:5 in either the OT or the NT.
Nor is there a NT text saying 'these two laws delete the OT, delete scripture, delete the commandments of God.."
...
hint: Even your own pro-sunday scholars know enough not to do such things.
(Instead of opposing the teaching of Christ in Mark 7:6-13 -- try a few days of embracing it)
Hello Bob.
Nice comment Bob, I don't advocate creative writing when discussing the scripture either. Exegesis
raises one of the most important considerations when reading any text. Who is the intended audience?
Jew or Gentile, if you ignore the audience that the letter was written to, then your reading of the
scripture will be erroneous.
True. And we can see that the New Covenant language in Jer 31:31-33 most certainly had to include Jews. This is irrefutable.
It is also irrefutable that just as your own pro-sunday scholars admit - those Jews would not have imagined that God's Ten Commandments had been deleted from that LAW which the NEW Covenant says is written on the heart and mind.
And as we see in Hebrews 8:6-10 that NEW Covenant language remains unchanged - asis - both NT and OT regarding the LAW of God. And it is hard to believe that the book of Hebrews is meant to "Exclude Jews".
So far we have irrefutable Bible facts that fully refute the wild speculation that the LAW of God written on the heart under the NEW Covenant must most certainly exclude God's TEN Commandments.
We cannot know whether Jeremiah understood what he wrote. We cannot assume that he did
Good eisegesis. Poor exegesis to simply "imagine" that Jeremiah and his readers did not know what the LAW of God was so they simply write "We have no clue what the LAW of God is - but whatever it is - it is written on heart and mind under the New Covenant".
That would be a wild-swing of eisegesis in directly violation of the text - that even your own pro-sunday scholars would not take seriously - let alone any other bible students on the planet that did not reject God's law.
the text is silent about this point Bob.
No text - not one single text in all of scripture - claims that "I know what I am talking about" has to be added to every statement in scripture or else the reader is to assume they can make up whatever they want because the author and primary readers were all clueless.
What we DO have is the "exceptions to the rule" that ARE noted. Instead of the rule being "we are all clueless unless we add to every sentence -- and we know what we are talking about" -- the Daniel 8 examples shows that when the are really baffled by simply say so in the text - that they have no one to explain it to them.
In actual scripture - it is the exact opposite of the wild assumption you make.
So in the first part of your response you go immediately to the most extreme form of eisegesis known to mankind right after affirming the point that this would be the worst thing one can do.
I find your logic 'illusive' at that point.