You're doing excellent for such a huge load to juggle...
But you know what? Carnivorism isn't the only reason animals die. Even if all animals were vegetarians, animals would still have to die in order to keep animal populations finite over an indefinite period of time. That isn't even evolution, it's basic math.
Anyways.
Now we know Paul would not have been referring ot society for society consisted of only 2 people Adam and Eve. Also a better word to designate it referring to man would have been oikumene.
I never said Paul was referring to society. He was referring to the world. Before the Fall, there was no sin in the world, while after the Fall, there was sin in the world; that explains why Paul says that sin entered "the world". But sin entering "the world" brought death "to all men". That is plain reading, my brother.
Here's a good parallel:
Now, I assure you that wherever the gospel is preached all over the world (kosmon), what she has done will be told in memory of her."
(Mark 14:9 GNB)
Just because the gospel is preached all over the world, does that mean that all
animals will be told about her?
Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned--
(Romans 5:12 ESV)
Just because sin came into the world, does that mean that all
animals are subjected to death because of it?
But nearly all literalist and conservative linguists look at this and agree that Paul was referring to the universe as the harmonious arrangemet of things because the entire universe was declared very good by God after it was finished in six days. So the death thast was decreed fell to all inhabitants and was passed on to all men because of the sin of Adam.
Here's a literal and conservative commentary for you:
Sin entered into the world - He was the first sinner of the race. The word “sin” here evidently means the violation of the Law of God He was the first sinner among people, and in consequence all others became sinners. The apostle does not here refer to Satan, the tempter, though he was the suggester of evil; for his design was to discuss the effect of the plan of salvation in meeting the sins and calamities of our race. This design, therefore, did not require him to introduce the sin of another order of beings. He says, therefore, that Adam was the first sinner of the race, and that death was the consequence.
Into the world - Among mankind; Joh_1:10; Joh_3:16-17. The term “world” is often thus used to denote human beings, the race, the human family. The apostle here evidently is not discussing the doctrine of original sin, but he is stating a simple fact, intelligible to all: “The first man violated the Law of God, and, in this way, sin was introduced among human beings.” In this fact - this general, simple declaration - there is no mystery.
(Barnes' Commentary)
[Or are you going to say it is not a literal and conservative commentary because you happen to disagree with it?]
You still have to resolve the conflict between your interpretation and the following textual points:
Even though the general context of Romans 5 is not how sin affects all biological life.
Even though Paul says that death only passed into the world, not into all life.
Even though God never told the animals or Adam that anything would happen to the animals if Adam ate the forbidden fruit.
Even though God never said any punishment to the animals after Adam fell, while making a lot of other punishments that make complete sense without the imposition of animal death or the assumption of pre-Fall animal immortality.
Well lush tropical are adjectives not found in the genesis passage, but we do know that God said everything (meaning even the foliage ) was very good and lush tropical are adjectrives that would somewhat adequately supply a meaning to very good! You only complain because they describe God making a planet that was very good and not yet cursed with weeds and deserts and volcanoes and mega meteor strikes and hundreds of billions of dead things and mass extinctions because of Adams sin.
You know what would be "perfect" for us who live in a tropical climate? I've never firsthand seen snow, never delighted in the first budding of spring, never enjoyed getting sprayed by fire hydrants in the heat of summer, never enjoyed watching the green of the world turn around me to brilliant orange and red and yellow, never watched the pristine white of a snow-covered land. Many people from my country enjoy relocating to Western countries partly because of the beauty of experiencing seasons.
So can't I say that this hot, sweaty, constantly-raining, season-less tropical climate is the result of the Fall? The perfect world, I could argue, would have four seasons everywhere, in direct contradiction to what you believe.
And the Bible would never be able to decide between us two because God's idea of perfection is higher than either mine or yours.
Well you should say eisegesis on your part for it is not exegesis. Romans 8:
19For the earnest expectation of the creature waiteth for the manifestation of the sons of God.
20For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope, 21Because the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God.
Now creature and creation here are the same greek word (ktisis) so it is the same word.
Creation was made subject to vanity by god in verse 22 and in verse 23 creation will be delivered from its bondage to corruption and brought in to the liberty of us.
Now corruption is: phthora which is:
corruption, destruction, perishing
that which is subject ot corruption, perishing
in the christian sense, eternal misery in hell
in the NT, in an ethical sense, moral decay.
And because only mankind is subjected to morals and hell and not the creation we know that do not apply here so 1 and a are the operative definitions for this passage. In context Paul is talking about trhe human condition in Romans 8 I agree, BUT verses 19-22 are a parqanthetical which Paul is saying-- "Hey even the universe is groaning awaiting freddom from death and decay as well" ( I paraphrase) Why can we be sure Paul is talking about the rest of the universe?
verse 23:And not only [they], but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, [to wit], the redemption of our body.
They are in contrast to us!! The they is the creation and the us is the sons of God! So see a little careful exegesis and comparing scripture with Scripture shows that death entered into the world by one mans sin and passed on to all the universe by God himself and awaits freedom from the curse.
I'll have to go in-depth into the Greek to differentiate between your interpretation and mine. But right now the biggest difficulty I have with your interpretation is this:
Why doesn't Paul come straight out and say "death" if that's what he means? Why does he have to use words which he uses everywhere else to refer to humans and their moral corruption if he's referring to the whole universe?
Some commentary work reveals a very interesting position in which most if not all of the "creation"s in Romans 8 are actually translated as "creature". There seems to be nothing wrong with this from the Greek, and it makes sense in a passage centered on man and the glory awaiting him upon salvation.
And I agree that Paul is contrasting us with creation:
Creation is under the stewardship of man's futility. Because of that, it groans waiting for God to reveal His divine sovereignty and remove the futility of man from man's stewardship of nature.
We have come under bondage because of the futility of our minds (Romans 7). Because of that, we are groaning waiting for God to reveal His divine sovereignty and remove the futility of our sin from our lives.
Well are you a panentiest or animist? Since when do we see the bible giving anything other than man a moral or spiritual cod ewhich they can veer from and be held accountable?? Animals are amoral as well as plants. If anything it should be the other way around as well as adding death to man as well.
When man trespasses his moral code, his actions naturally cause damage to the environment. This ancient truth of the Bible, that creation groans because of our futility in stewarding it, has come to light in modern science through the proclamations of environmental science warning us that we have to change our ways or we will destroy our environment. It is actually
sin and greed in us that compels us to perform environmentally destructive things. And it is our sin and greed which has caused the environment to deviate from God's plan for it. Hence "the creation waits with eager longing for the revealing of the sons of God".
Inever clasimed you did reject the physical resurrection. All I was doing was asking a question based on teh fact that science cannot prove the supernatural or quantify it so it should be brought up in the public arena (like schools and government). Well the resurrection is a supernatural intervention and cannotbe quantified in any empirical measure so I was just asking of you used the same logic for this piece of biblical fact as well??
The resurrection is historical fact.
The resurrection is a myth as well.
If you don't understand how we can say this you will never learn how we think, and you will never understand the deep respect and knowledge we have of Scripture which we supposedly "reject".
It isn't TEs who are stuck in the rut of always wanting to prove things by science ... it's scientific creationists.
He calls it a designed feature and shows so -- which is supernatural in origin from a Christian perspective.
He never showed any such thing. He only showed that:
1. some antibiotic resistance is conferred by gene transfer.
2. some antibiotic resistance is conferred by random mutation.
If that's a definition of design then design isn't falsifiable and is therefore not a scientific alternative to evolution.
Well when you edit your woute to leavce out the rest of the bad-- which was that the antibiotic resistant bacteria have a disadvantage that reduces it s viability inthe nonantibiotic enviornment making it a bad mutation to the species overall. Yes resisitng antiobiotiucs is good for the bacteria in an antibiotivc enviornment but overall to the whole species-- it si bad and he showed why.
See here's what you're saying:
Resistant bacteria have a disadvantage
that reduce its viability in the non-antibiotic environment
making resistance mutation bad overall.
Then you accuse me of leaving out what happens in a non-antibiotic environment.
So here's what I'll say:
Non-resistant bacteria have a disadvantage
that kills them in antibiotic environments
making non-mutation bad overall.
And you are leaving out what happens in antibiotic environments, so you're wrong.
And you can't disprove me because it's the exact mirror of your argument.
It's like a game of "scissors-paper-stone".
You say "scissors is better than paper, because scissors beats paper."
I say "paper is better than scissors, because paper beats stone while scissors doesn't."
So which is really "better"? Even a kid knows that it's impossible to decide which is better. Your fitness function defines scissors = 1 and paper = 0, while my fitness function defines paper = 1 and scissors = 0, and your function is valid in certain circumstances (in direct confrontation) while mine is valid under other circumstances (going against common other element).
In the same way, you have a fitness function
for env = non-antibiotic
mutant = lower metabolism
non-mutant = higher metabolism
non-mutant > mutant
while I have a fitness function
for env = antibiotic
mutant = alive
non-mutant = dead
mutant > non-mutant
and neither of us can generalize our fitness function over the domain of the entire species.