shernren
you are not reading this.
- Feb 17, 2005
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So whatever disagrees with you is wrong and whatever agrees with you is right? How convenient. A perfect symptom of the consumeristic nature of YEC theology.
So where is "futility" and "decay" used of nature? Other than "in Romans 8", which being the passage in contention cannot be quoted to support itself.
But if phthora is never used elsewhere to refer to creation, isn't it more logical to refer to man - which the past 6 chapters of Romans up to then have been talking about?
But not all flesh was destroyed in the flood, you know. I don't need to quote Scripture to remind you that two of every kind were brought into the ark, and of course Noah survived the flood with his family. So the "all flesh" is really:
all flesh minus Noah, his family, and the animals on Noah's ark
So since there are already implicit limitations on the "all"-ness of the flesh there, would it be too far to say that "all flesh" is also limited to the geographical area of Noah?
Yes, a local flood has never been known to destroy all life in a regioin. This is the fulfillment of God's promise to Noah: that never again would He utterly and completely obliterate life in a region with a flood. Noah's flood, of course, was the exception before God promised it.
You still have not addressed the glaring inconsistencies between Psalm 104's account and Genesis 6-8's account, if both are really talking about the same thing. And in Genesis 1 the deep represents the waters of chaos which God had to limit to impose order on earth in the form of creating land. Therefore God rebuked chaos to institute order. In any case "God said" is far closer to rebuking than "God sent a wind".
Are you admitting that you can't prove that animals didn't eat meat before the Fall?
You have got to be kidding. Lush tropical growth is only your idea of perfection, not the Bible's (and not for many people who swelter in the tropics personally). Cyclones exist not because the earth has rain but because the earth is round, due to the hairy ball theorem. (To say there were no cyclones before the fall you'll have to say the earth was flat before the fall.
) And the "windows of the heavens" refer to the waters above the firmament which were created in Genesis 1, which would have to be at the edge of the observable universe, and so you'll have to suggest how they travelled a few billion light-years to flood the earth for 40 days and nights.
So you have absolutely no idea why Scripture doesn't seem to give your interpretation support in the one place which would be unambiguous and certain? Blame it on God, huh. Have you ever even remotely considered the possibility that you just might actually be ... wrong?
But we have cited many verses saying that God is proud of sustaining carnivorous creatures. You are trying to say that carnivorism is a result of corruption. If God glorifies carnivorism, then, He must necessarily be glorifying corruption, according to you at least.
So when He asks who provides the lions their meat, He is really saying,
"Look at the corruption of the lions! Look at how evil they are to tear prey apart! And I provide them prey upon which they can practice their corruption! Oh look at My greatness!"
Are you really willing to believe that?
That would be incoorect!!
So where is "futility" and "decay" used of nature? Other than "in Romans 8", which being the passage in contention cannot be quoted to support itself.
As much as I like this for it would prove my point 100% absolute (before man fell creation was not subjected to decay, destruction and persihing) it doesn't say that.
That is you reading betweenthe lines and inserting personal opinion.
But if phthora is never used elsewhere to refer to creation, isn't it more logical to refer to man - which the past 6 chapters of Romans up to then have been talking about?
This alone shows you this cannot be the flood for the flood was designed to:
And God said unto Noah, The end of all flesh is come before me; for the earth is filled with violence through them; and, behold, I will destroy them with the earth.
And, behold, I, even I, do bring a flood of waters upon the earth, to destroy all flesh, wherein [is] the breath of life, from under heaven; [and] every thing that [is] in the earth shall die.
Now God either destroyed ALL flesh as He said or you are indicting God as a liar. For in a local flood some animals and people will escapre by fleeing to a different "erets" (region) so sorry it is all or you call God a liar-- see that is true science-- a local flood has NEVER been known to destroy ALL life in a region, BUT God said he was going to destroy ALL life for it is wicked. You will also have to show that only that region had become evil and somehow all the other regions wee not corrupt. No a global flood is the only thing the bible can refere to!!
But not all flesh was destroyed in the flood, you know. I don't need to quote Scripture to remind you that two of every kind were brought into the ark, and of course Noah survived the flood with his family. So the "all flesh" is really:
all flesh minus Noah, his family, and the animals on Noah's ark
So since there are already implicit limitations on the "all"-ness of the flesh there, would it be too far to say that "all flesh" is also limited to the geographical area of Noah?
Yes, a local flood has never been known to destroy all life in a regioin. This is the fulfillment of God's promise to Noah: that never again would He utterly and completely obliterate life in a region with a flood. Noah's flood, of course, was the exception before God promised it.
The flood account!! Why? The littel word rebuke-- which is a disciplinary correction! Or a negative command! In Genesis 1 It simply says that God says. Two differing words with 2 differetn meanings for two different events!
You still have not addressed the glaring inconsistencies between Psalm 104's account and Genesis 6-8's account, if both are really talking about the same thing. And in Genesis 1 the deep represents the waters of chaos which God had to limit to impose order on earth in the form of creating land. Therefore God rebuked chaos to institute order. In any case "God said" is far closer to rebuking than "God sent a wind".
You want to interpret Scripture by Scripture? If the passage in contention is:
Psalm 104:
6 You covered it with the deep as with a garment;
the waters stood above the mountains. 7 But at your rebuke the waters fled,
at the sound of your thunder they took to flight;
8 they flowed over the mountains,
they went down into the valleys,
to the place you assigned for them.
9 You set a boundary they cannot cross;
never again will they cover the earth.
which resembles it more: the Flood account?
Genesis 7
11 In the six hundredth year of Noah's life, on the seventeenth day of the second month—on that day all the springs of the great deep burst forth, and the floodgates of the heavens were opened. 12 And rain fell on the earth forty days and forty nights.
Genesis 8
1 But God remembered Noah and all the wild animals and the livestock that were with him in the ark, and he sent a wind over the earth, and the waters receded. 2 Now the springs of the deep and the floodgates of the heavens had been closed, and the rain had stopped falling from the sky. 3 The water receded steadily from the earth.
13 By the first day of the first month of Noah's six hundred and first year, the water had dried up from the earth. Noah then removed the covering from the ark and saw that the surface of the ground was dry. 14 By the twenty-seventh day of the second month the earth was completely dry.
or the Creation account?
Genesis 1:
2 Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.
9 And God said, "Let the water under the sky be gathered to one place, and let dry ground appear." And it was so. 10 God called the dry ground "land," and the gathered waters he called "seas." And God saw that it was good.
and which has more continuity with:
10 He makes springs pour water into the ravines;
it flows between the mountains.
11 They give water to all the beasts of the field;
the wild donkeys quench their thirst.
12 The birds of the air nest by the waters;
they sing among the branches.
13 He waters the mountains from his upper chambers;
the earth is satisfied by the fruit of his work.
a description of the horrible aftermath of the Flood ... or a description of the beauty of God's created hydrosphere?
You should know one cannot prove a negative!
Are you admitting that you can't prove that animals didn't eat meat before the Fall?

But ther mist that come up from the earth was sufficeint to water the ground . Had not does speak of limited duration-- it eneded at teh flood when God broke open the deeps that had been misting the gorunds and opened the windows of heaven for forty days and nights. It is hydrologically impossible with current meteorlogical conditions to have a forty day rain deluge. The computer modleeling showing the antedeluvian world supports all the facts the bible says:
1. Long life
2. Lush tropic gorwth throughout the planet
3. No meterology (winds rain snow hail tornadoes etc)
4. Dense growth to produce the coal, oil and gas beds we have today!
You have got to be kidding. Lush tropical growth is only your idea of perfection, not the Bible's (and not for many people who swelter in the tropics personally). Cyclones exist not because the earth has rain but because the earth is round, due to the hairy ball theorem. (To say there were no cyclones before the fall you'll have to say the earth was flat before the fall.
Well you can take that up with God when you see Him. JUst like why a menstrating woman was unclean in the OT but OK in the NT and why pigs were unclean inthe OT but OK in the NT and why eye for eye was ok in th eOT but turn the other cheek was OK in the NT. I wopnt apologize for why God did what He did and revealed things in the way He did.
So you have absolutely no idea why Scripture doesn't seem to give your interpretation support in the one place which would be unambiguous and certain? Blame it on God, huh. Have you ever even remotely considered the possibility that you just might actually be ... wrong?
irrelavent--God gave man permission to eat animals after the global flood! You need to prove that man was an omnivore prior to genesis 9 Also from genesis 6:
And God looked upon the earth, and, behold, it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth.
What corruption befell the animal kingdomfrom the fall of man to the flood? For the corrupt here is inthe hiphil which means to corrupt or pervert? What got perverted in the animals. Do not say this refers to man because of the his asa the pronooun-- Hebrew had no personal pronouns.
verse7:
And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.
If the animals were still just doing as you said-- why would God repent for having made animals??? No all the language says that both man and animals degenerated "morally" after the fall.
But we have cited many verses saying that God is proud of sustaining carnivorous creatures. You are trying to say that carnivorism is a result of corruption. If God glorifies carnivorism, then, He must necessarily be glorifying corruption, according to you at least.
So when He asks who provides the lions their meat, He is really saying,
"Look at the corruption of the lions! Look at how evil they are to tear prey apart! And I provide them prey upon which they can practice their corruption! Oh look at My greatness!"
Are you really willing to believe that?
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