originally posted by anatolian
So, I mean it is easy to miss the details and find wrong results.
This is not relevant to the question asked. The problem reduces to the issue of whether you using good rational thinking to arrive at your conclusion. You are not. You are avoid using primary sources to answer. You know that if you consider them, you would have to admit that it isn't as likely to have happened. Biblical geography and accounts don't afford this as a legitimate possibility. As already mentioned, God told Abraham to go and settle in the land known as Canaan. As Abraham left Ur, a region in Mesopotamia near the Euphrates River, he traveled to Haran, which is southwest of Ur and was part of the Babylonian Empire. After that, he finally reached Canaan, which is southwest of Haran. At that point God specifically told him that this land will be part of the promise of a dwelling place for him and his offspring, the Israelites. God gave him that land, and most of the history of the Bible takes place in this region of Canaan that became know as Israel. We also see that Abraham went to Egypt-not as a vacation, but to prevent himself from facing the drought in Canaan. Upper Egypt is adjacent to ancient Israel to the west. Afterwards, Abraham was sent back to his home where he remained except for brief periods of time. One occasion was to rescue Lot from Gomorrah, which is also in the same vicinity of Babylonian empire. God kept moving Abraham until he reached the land that He gave him in his promise. There is no reason to suddenly move Abraham down to the far south since God pointed him to a certain piece of land (Canaan) to settle and live.
You see David, who lived in the OT times, isn't even called a prophet in OT but only in NT.If we base our knowledge on what the OT litterally says or does not say we wouldn't know whether David was a prophet.Just like this, the pligrimage of Abraham to Kaba might not be mentioned in Bible or might be in details but this doesn't give you right to deny it if it is real.
I did explain about David already. That does not affect your ability to answer the question asked of you. It is still flawed logic. If there is no mention of an event in the Bible, therefore, it did happen. Do you see what the problem is? You are conveniently leaving out the opposite possibility without considering the known information surrounding it. I just explained some of it in the above paragraph. This tactic of yours is done to absolve yourself of dealing with known information, i.e., primary sources which give us a different picture.
Also consider another possibility: Since there is no mention of a certain event in the Qu'ran, therefore, it didn't happen. Can you equally use this as an alternative? Would you be as enthusiastic to answer with
maybe?
I was trying to give you the benefit of a doubt when I last explained it to you. You are just trying to increase your probabilities by putting some doubt in the probability against it. This is being deceptive. If you had an answer for the question, it is your responsibility to say it and let the discussion continue. If you had a legitimate answer, it would have been given by now. I can use the same approach and claim that Jesus went to Kaaba and cursed the grounds and the building. Would you treat this with equal probability? No, you will try to defend that it didn't happen because of X, Y. or Z. The X, Y, and Z would be something of known significance. It wouldn't be something pulled out of thin air.
"Maybe" God wanted this vacation to be hidden or in details in Torah but revealed it in Quran because Torah was for the Jews
The Torah wasn't just for Jews. It included the other tribes as well as non Jews. Noah, Adam, Abraham, Lot and a host of other people were not Jews. God would not be able to hide something from the Jews that they would have been important to their heritage and then have a later prophet tell them that it happened and expect the Jews to accept it without looking back into their history to see if such a thing existed.
and God didnt want Jews to pligrimage to Kaba but He wanted Muhammedan muslims to pligrimage Kaba and revealed this event in Quran.This is possible.
Get my point?
I get your point, but you are not using good reasoning by avoiding what is known. This is irrational. If you only speak of Muslims from the Qu'ran, that is better, but don't try to create a bridge to Jews and Christians by doing this. God gave specific promises to Abraham that lead him to Canaan. Canaan is not in lower Arabia. Upper Arabia is the only place that we see that God sent Him to settle. The geographic names and directions point this out. Before Abraham left Ur, he was a pagan. That means that he couldn't have made the pilgrimage before this time since he was not under God's guidance. God transformed Him on his way from Ur to Canaan. By the time he reached Canaan, Abraham was completely transformed. But we see from Biblical records that he settled in the land that God promised and remained there as part of keeping the Covenant that he agreed to with God in Genesis. All events of his life after conversion kept him close to Canaan.
So, spare yourself the embarrassment and stop playing games. Either you have a good rational response or you don't. Which is it? Also stop trying to bait and switch us to a different topic so that we forget the original question. Questioning our Biblical IQ does not prevent you from answering the question.