Calminian
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- Feb 14, 2005
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It is specifically relevant to what you said. Look at what you said. You said that to "interpret the Scriptures as being derived from Near Eastern Literature you are reducing it to a pagan mythology". The quote that I posted directly contradicts that and says that we must interpret it from ANE context, and to do otherwise would be to confuse symbol with reality. That is exactly what is going on here. You are using a concordist interpretation and confusing the original meaning with your current cosmology. Doing that is the same as "confusing symbol with reality".....
Actually Phillis this the part you are really confused about. Just because someone doesn't apply a particular culture to a text doesn't me they are guilty of concordism. In fact, you are the one that's actually doing what you are accusing him of. You are forcing a particular culture onto a writer without justification. In fact, when it comes to Genesis 1, you are ignoring the writer's own definition of raqia and inserting one form ANE culture.
When reeding a text, if it defines its own terms, you don't then scrap those and look to apply cultural meanings to replace them with. That's the opposite of exegesis, especially when we don't know all there is to know about ancient cultures. All you're doing is forcing flat earth and solid dome cosmologies onto scripture, trying to read it into every passage you can.
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