I meant to be #666, but I guess I ain't quick enough... whoa! Wait a minute! We got a few more to go...
My log-in timed out(again) but I copied my reply so I wouldn't lose it...
Hi, Rick. How can God want anyone to sin?
1Kings22:22
He is perfect, and He cannot tolerate sin;
Ok, I need help findin' this one... remember in the OT, some guy who was a heathen kings right-hand-man was converted to belief, and had to return to his job, where he would be required to bow or genuflect, or something like that, to a false god? He asked for allowance to do that so he wouldn't get killed.
Also:
Ps 139:8 - If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my
bed in hell, behold, thou art there.
that's why there was a veil in the Temple, that's why Jesus' blood was necessary, that's why the veil tore. As James says, "God tempts no one." (1:12)
I don't think it was so much because He couldn't tolerate sin as because He wanted to glorify His Father.
To do all that out of intolerance is reactionary. God is not reactive, He is pro-active.
Why "no"? You just asserted that "both sin and salvation are fully His choice"; so He cannot judge us on what He Himself decreed.
Says who?
In Rom2, "Do you count on God's patience and kindness and forebearance, not knowing the kindness of God leads you to REPENTANCE? But you, by your hard and unrepentant heart, are making God MAD."
What's your point?
In Acts17:30, "God commands all men everywhere to repent."
So what?
in Mark1:15, "The kingdom of God is at hand --- repent and believe the Gospel."
Get to the point please, I don't have a lot of time...
In Ezk18:24, after speaking of a "righteous man who turns and does wickedness, he will die" --- and a "wicked man who turns to righteousness, his wicked deeds will not be remembered" --- he then writes: "I (Lord God) take no pleasure in the death of anyone who dies; so REPENT and LIVE."
You mean just like the human judge in the example I gave, where he doesn't want anyone to suffer, but he can't just let murderers & rapists have their way?
It seems easy to establish that "God wants all men to repent", doesn't it?
Not seems, it is easy. Nobody disagrees with that, you're wasting precious time re-iterating.
We need to read the Greek. It's a rare occurrance of "boulema", which means "decree".
No we don't because that isn't our point of contention at issue. You are headed off the rails.
"God does not DECREE (boulemai) ANY to perish, but patiently MAKES-ROOM (choreo) for ALL to repent." You didn't know that it said "God doesn't decree perishing", did you? makes no sense; "God doesn't decree to perish any predestined-for-salvation (no duh!), but patiently waits/makes-room for all (few-whom-He-has-elected) to repent."
Makes perfect sense, unless you're perishing.
You conveniently ignore the first part of that verse which contextualy limits who He is talking to & about:
9: The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to
us-ward, not willing that any (of
us-the people He is longsuffering toward)should perish, but that all (of us)should come to repentance.
He patiently waits for the moment He has predestined us to be ready for His gift of repentance
God doesn't decree-perish, whom He has decreed-not-perish? Why bother to write something like that?
Because we are typicaly idiots and need redundancy & repetition to 'get it'.
God patiently waits for those to repent, to whom He has GIFTED repentance??? How does that make sense?
You shuffle tenses.
The gifting is planned, but it happens in time, we're not born repenting. C'mon that was lame! I seriously on't have the time for that.
Yes Rom9:19 uses "boulema" --- but it's an antagonistic response that someone MIGHT make, who objects to "Also Gentiles". I don't think it helps your position...
Desperate speculation:
19: Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
THe antagonism has nothing to do with the persons identity, it is questioning, exactly like you, how God can judge (find fault) if fault was decreed.
If He doesn't "delight" in their condemnation, then how could He predestine it?
Again, you shuffle verse content. He delights in his plan coming together, He does not delight in the fact that people suffer. Delight is not desirable as the only mode of existence - that would be boring, even if it were possible. Totaly unrealistic.
Absolutely correct --- please find me a single instance where salvation is by DECREED will.
Every instance is decreed, that's my point. To single one out would be silly.
Have you ever read Jn6:40? "
Spare me that indignity, please. I have read The Bible cover-to-cover 7 times, not counting word studies, etc., etc., etc.
This is God's WILL, that all who see Jesus and believe, may be saved." "Will" here, is "thelema" --- desire.
And all who believe are all who He personaly decreed would do so, in time.
Please review 2Tim2:1-4; it doesn't work to think Paul meant "God desires all-ORDAINED to be saved" --- because "kings and ALL AUTHORITY" are included in "all men".
1Tim, not 2Tim, and its "pray for" not "are to be saved"
1 Timothy 2:1 I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty. 3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
Does He desire many to perish, or not?
No, but He knows it is necessary.
Hope I haven't come across in any way as "harsh"; I'm just gently urging you more towards "skeptical" of what you previously took for granted...

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Not harsh, just dense & confused, like I often get myself.