John Mullally
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- Aug 5, 2020
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1 Timothy 2:4 says that God desires all men to be saved - case closed. God gave His only begotten son (John 3:16) for all (1 John 2:2 and 1 Timothy 2:6) - is that not enough? Do you now presume to tell Jesus how He was to spend his limited ministry time (3 years) to better prove His love for humanity?You responded to the post. You ignored the argument. I can quote it for you if you’d like, and demonstrate how your response doesn’t match up.
I’m not questioning the word of God. Quote, “My way is actually consistent throughout. I can show how it fits with the OP, and the John 12 and Matthew 13 passages.” See? No questioning.
Like I said much earlier, in John 6, Jesus was actively working to alienate some would-be followers. That does not mean that God did not desire them to be saved - He did not want Jesus to be captive to people that wanted to make Him king because they had desire for more free food (John 6:15).Okay, then explain why we have at least three places in the gospels where Jesus was clearly not only not trying to save everyone, but doing just the opposite.
You don't get to define my word usage. If a dictionary has three possible meanings for the word 'delayed' (as in this case), proper word usage depends on the meanng lining up with at least one of the possibliites - which did occur.1. to refrain from noticing or recognizing:
That’s how I used it. The author determines the intent. This looks like you are doing everything you can to not address the question. Care to address the question?
Scripture is final authority. Care to address 1 Timothy 2:4 or 1 Timothy 4:10.
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