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Howdy! I would be interested in your opinions.
Anything consecrated to God cannot be used for a profane purpose
Nothing that occurrs within the covenant of marriage is "profane"..
I'm sure the Queen of Heaven you mention is probably the one mentioned in Jeremiah, right?
I'm sure Romans didn't care as much of Egyptians deities, and there is also the fact a lot of pagan religions refer to characters as "sons of God", yet you don't think St. Constantine copied that, right?
Their resurrection has not even taken place yet. Before such powers will be granted (if it were possible)It is my understanding that Mary and the Saints have entered into the fullness of theosis.
Funny that besides the false statements you present, you talk about Scriptures whose canon was formed by those who you call "Mary worshippers", especially since that happened between the 3rd & 5th centuries.When did Catholic church start worshiping Mary?In the early part of the 3rd century, Hippolytus of Rome recorded the first liturgical reference to the Virgin Mary, as part of the ordination rite of a bishop. Marian feasts appeared in the 4th century, and the feast of the "Memory of Mary, Mother of God" was celebrated on August 15 in Jerusalem by the year 350.
Veneration of Mary in the Catholic Church - Wikipedia
Such "mother" worship was unheard of in the early church. It was never promoted by the apostles. It they had? It would surely be seen in Scripture, which we do not find.
There was a pagan streak in some people who loved to worship a mother figure. Eventually it snuck into the church. It was not found with the founding apostles.
Funny that besides the false statements you present, you talk about Scriptures whose canon was formed by those who you call "Mary worshippers", especially since that happened between the 3rd & 5th centuries.
Which texts? Because the Wikipedia link you sent show that the Early Christians mainly used the Septuagint which contains books Protestants reject. Also it shows one of the early councils to give a canon of the Bible was the Council of Rome 382.Evidence suggests that the process of canonization occurred between 200 BC and 200 AD, and a popular position is that the Torah was canonized c. 400 BC, the Prophets c. 200 BC, and the Writings c. 100 AD perhaps at a hypothetical Council of Jamnia—however, this position is increasingly criticised by modern scholars. Biblical canon - Wikipedia
That is the second link I have given. Did you bother to check the first one?
And this third one?
Did the Catholic Church compiled the Bible?
Absolutely not. In the days of Jesus, there were a lot texts in use by the Hebrew people. These texts were written on individual scrolls and taken out by rabbis when they needed to be read publically. Jesus and his followers would have been very familiar with most of the texts available at that time. Biblical canon - Wikipedia
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Where are we now? Catholics promote Catholicism. Protestants promote Protestantism.Which texts? Because the Wikipedia link you sent show that the Early Christians mainly used the Septuagint which contains books Protestants reject. Also it shows one of the early councils to give a canon of the Bible was the Council of Rome 382.
@Not David is neither Catholic nor Protestant, so where is your argument now?Where are we now? Catholics promote Catholicism. Protestants promote Protestantism.
@Not David is neither Catholic nor Protestant, so where is your argument now?
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