Interplanner, regarding your bio post on page one, post #7, of this thread, I can understand where you might have had a wake up call regarding Ryrie et al, as Traditional, or Classic Dispensationalism results in about in as many problems as it purports solving due to its wandering off into resorting to reason as a means of solving for said problems.
I get that. It is not consistent Dispensationalism. At such points it resorts to the same "solution" many of the schools of thought on here resort to - the reasoning of men.
But I also see that is where you ended up, just a different school of reason, as the answer to these issues is in Scripture, 2 Timothy 3: 16, 17.
Not it books about, nor in attempting to applying reason outside of how Scripture does.
For example, throughout Acts, Luke relates Paul's journeys, words, actions, etc.
And yet, he never mentions the Mystery, we are left with Paul on Paul's Perspective, Acts basically being a record of events as to the fall of Israel and salvation going to the Gentiles outside of what haf been Israel's rise to its prophesied glory before the Gentiles.
I realize we differ on this due to our first source: mine being Paul's words on these issues in light of Paul, yours being Paul's words via Luke, and that, in light of what the reasoning of scholarship considers is the impact of secular issues on Luke's narrative.
I am Mid-Acts in my Dispensationalism, and deliberately consistent in it's Hermeneutic.
One aspect of which views Acts through Paul's Perspective, not only not the other way around, but, as to the historic transition taking place in Acts through said Pauline Perspective alone.
Meaning, that in Paul's Perspective, Israel is "diminishing" in focus as the Acts narrative changes from the early Messianic assembly of Matt. 16 thru early Acts, to Israel's fall, and the salvation and commissioning of Paul.
That is my Pauline Perspective - that God's focus begins to gradually shift from a focus on this Earth, Israel, and their signs and wonders, to a Heavenly people.
At the same time, He is for a time provoking Israel to jealousy, as Israel looks out a sees its signs among the Gentiles, thus, why even Israel's elect "were astonished" by this "signs...confirmed" shift.
By the end of Acts, as God has, for the third and final time announced through this odd new, unexpected Apostle, "that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it," by the end of that, the signs among the Gentiles have ceased, as God is no longer provoking Israel to jealousy "with men of other tongues."
In this, God no longer focused on this Earth "until... after this.." the events in Israel's life after Acts 28 had no more to do with God, than 1948, or what have you. Both 70 AD and 1948 AD fall outside of God's turn from thar nation.
70AD was their doing every bit as much as landing oneself in trouble with local government when one, reaping what one sews in the flesh does so, in their own departure from God if they are Christian, or if they are lost and simply walking in their own way.
You wanna be consistent - there it is - either He ceased dealing with Israel through secular powers because He ceased dealing with that nation prior to 70AD [until... after this] or He continued to contrary to the final word of Acts in light of Paul...
Answers you won't find in the Greek and studies of Jewish Wars. Rather, in a consistent, Mid-Acts Dispensationalism...