Thank you for that. But do you not see the implications? (I may explain what
I see as the implications at the end of this post if there is room, but first I want to answer some of your questions.
I believe that the
Word of God is Jesus Christ (John 1). I believe that the
Wisdom of God is the Holy Spirit (Proverbs 8) No book, no matter how holy can encompass all that is implied in these titles.
Having said that, however, I do believe that "
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness (2 Timothy 3:16)." But that does not mean that God carved the books in stone without human intervention. Instead, He chose men to speak of this instruction in righteousness. He chose particular men because of who they were knowing their backgrounds would influence
how they would choose to pass on this instruction in righteousness. And He often chose them as much for their flaws and weaknesses as for their strengths.
I do try to learn righteousness from the Scriptures, but to do that, it is important to understand just what it is that the Scriptures are teaching.
Without getting into the mechanics of how the Scriptures came down to us, or the inherent difficulty in translating from one language to another -- especially when they are the languages of two vastly different cultures -- let me just say that I trust in the power of God to preserve the important essence of the teachings in the Bible, despite any corruption of the text that might creep in due to human involvement in the process. But that process may have resulted in passages that are no longer as clear as they might be, and others (for example where an idiom was translated literally) which may even appear to be misleading.
One way to try to correct for this possibility is to examine other ancient documents. The goal is not to replace the Bible but to understand it. So, for example, we look at the Talmud and the Midrash not necessarily to accept their conclusions, but to see what it was that they discussed about the Scriptures: what was obvious was not, or barely, discussed. What was less clear was the subject of discussion: "What did God mean when he had Moses write this?"
Or we look at contemporary writings to determine if a phrase from the Bible is known to be a common idiom, or if we should interpret it more literally. (Because the KJV tended to translate idioms literally even when it was clear they were idioms, many of them transferred as idioms into English (occasionally with minor changes or additions: "the lying of" became "to lie with" both implying sex rather than rest, the usual meaning of lie; "to know [one's] wife" meant marital relations, and in English has been expanded -- in the phrase "to know, biblically" -- to mean sex in general. In fact the "biblically" aknowledges three things: that it is an idiom [it needs to be distinguished from the normal use of the word], it is a borrowed idiom, and we know the origin of its use in English, and it is borrowed from another language [the KJV is a translation from other languages])
We also look at contemporary literature because the Biblical authors occasionally quoted it, or otherwise referenced it, and we might be able to get a better picture of what They had in mind, whether to agree with or to rip apart. Twice (Acts 17:28 and Titus 1:12) Paul quotes from the Cretica by Epimenides. In Acts, it is to point out that what is just poetical praise when applied to Zeus is nothing less than the simple truth when applied to the true God. In Titus it is without referencing the meaning of Epimenides' poem; he is simply turning it into an ethnic joke "All Cretan are liars and one of their own said so."
So we come closer to understanding the point Paul was making when we recognize that he was quoting another, even more famous, Greek philosopher who, in the middle of making a point about certain sins (things that are "against nature"), made a different ethnic joke about Cretans. Or that in the diatribe at the beginning of his letter to the churches in Rome, he was deliberately imitating the rhetoric of the increasingly popular "apocalyptic" literature of holier-than-than-the-gentiles Jewish "prophets."
No, Christianity is not about
being Christlike; it is about the
ongoing process of being transformed into Christ's image. God does not expect us to be perfect to become Christians.
Just as I am, and waiting not
To rid my soul of one dark blot,
To you whose blood can cleanse each spot,
O Lamb of God, I come; I come.
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
2 Timothy 3:16
Quoting that verse is the only possible answer to the words of your question. But what about the spirit of the question?
This goes to the difference between a bad teacher and a good teacher. A bad teacher teaches for the test. The student learns exactly that part of the textbook which addresses what is expected to give the correct on the test and absolutely nothing more, and is unprepared for life. A good teacher makes use of the student's intellegence, his curiosity, and his life experiences and forgets about the test. The student learns to think for himself, to read and appreciate the entire textbook, and to apply what he has learned to his life. When the test comes, if it at all tests for the things that the textbook was attempting to explain, the student can easily pass, giving not just rote, prepackaged answers, but highly reasoned discussions of why and how it is the best answer.
The Holy Spirit is the teacher, and the Bible is the primary textbook He uses in His instruction. I believe that the Holy Spirit is a good teacher. The way too many fundamentalist and other conservative posters write, they seem to believe He is a bad teacher, teaching only the rules to pass the test of the final judgment.
If the Bible says don't have sex with prostitutes, and that ideally celibacy is to be preferred for the sake of the gospel, but you honestly believe it also says it is better to marry than to burn and so you habitually have sex with your wife with no remorse, are you "manipulating God's word"? If I'm a celibate aesthete who believes that the Bible forbids all sex can I look at you and tell you its wrong?
How do you reconcile this attitude with Romans 14?