I couldn't help but respond to this. Apologies for the delay, it's been a busy day.
So first off the bat, I'll assume you're still referring to the Leviticus 18 reference of homosexuality as an abomination. The first question I'd ask is whether this (ritual purity) is consistent with all applications of toevah. The answer is unanimously; no.
This leads to the question of how toevah was used throughout the overall works of the Bible, given that linguistic utility of any given word changes over time, we'll stick to the post-exilic prophets, considering that they would be closest in date to when this was written and that will give us a more clear view of how the word was used during this period. See, the issue with toevah is that it is a very
powerful word that equated to disgust, or loathsome imagery. In a lot of cases, it refers to idolatry, and one must wonder why that is if all it's pointing towards is ritual purity. Does that mean it's okay now to worship idols so long as you clean yourself off afterwards? Do you think that's what it meant in the OT?
One might even argue that it doesn't have an English equivalent that even remotely does it justice, so before we get into the nitty-gritty, let's see what Strong's has to say (hooray for the chase!)...
Now, we have the definition of the specific word (note the reference - especially idolatry or (concretely) an idol), let's see what word Strong's is referencing here...
Hmm... interesting note. Okay! Moving on.
Now, where was I? Ah, yes... post-exilic prophets. I'm sticking to Ezekiel as it's only used once in any of the other prophetic books.
Ezekiel; 43 different occurrences. Hmm... Ezekiel's most notable theme was adultery in regards to Israel; harlotry, idolatry, etc... against the covenant of God. You find the language of marital unfaithfulness and unchastity are generally interchangeable with the concepts of idolatry or lusting after false god(s)(ess)(es). Let's see some examples... (I won't post them all, don't worry! If I recall correctly, I already did a brief outline, so I'll just reiterate some of the key points)
No question what this one is referring to...
Again, no question...
But with this passage, there's another clue to the overall context of what this word is actually referencing...
Veddy interesting... Perhaps it's not the act of idolatry that's abhorrent to God in this passage, but something that idolatry is only an external indication of...
And now on to one of my favorite chapters in Ezekiel. This chapter has multiple occurrences of this word, too, so that's even better!
(Expanded context to clarify the point)
Now, this use is a bit more tricky to pin down from just this passage, so let's look at some other occurrences in this chapter.
I'm getting confused here. Is he talking about idolatry, or infidelity, prostitution, and lust? I bet the two things are mutually exclusive, just like the use of this word in reference to homosexuality, right? The same as the use of this word to describe child-sacrifices to Molech? I bet if they were just sacrificing children to nobody and nothing it'd be fine. I bet if they were engaging in secular prostitution and infidelity that'd be fine, too.
The context of each passage is what determines the meaning. For this word, you can see there are going to be even more possible applications than what's in this post, but we'll explore a couple more just for fun. Let's look at the books of the Law.
I want to start with Lev. 18.
A huge majority of the occurrences in even the books of the Law of this word, toevah, refer to idolatry or sexual sins. Don't believe me?
Check it out. But when it occurs in Lev. 18, specifically regarding homosexuality, we see it smack dab in the center of the sexual ethics that God ordained for Israel. The passage in question in Lev 18;
But let's discuss the surrounding context here. The chapter ends with a proclamation that all of these things are abominations (everything in the chapter);
What picture is this painting for us? Is it okay to sleep with animals because it's only an abomination in Leviticus, and obviously had nothing to do with a secularized act (not done in worship of an idol)? Is this
just ritual purity being discussed in Leviticus 18? Or is this homosexual pronouncement the only one that is exempt from the criteria by which we'd presuppose regarding the rest of this chapter?
I present to you my thesis; ritual purity and moral purity are not always mutually exclusive terms.
We don't practice ritual purity anymore, Christ is more than pure enough for all of us; God's demands for purity were more than met through His life. We don't practice animal sacrifice anymore because Christ took care of that for us, as well. We do still keep moral and sexual purity. We keep moral purity because that is the essence of the Law. Every single aspect of the Law had something to do with it, but ritual purity and the outward adornments of legalism didn't address motivations, or our hearts. We keep sexual purity for about the same reason, but also because it deals directly with type & antitype in relation to God's covenant with us through Christ. In other words, we were made to live a certain way by God in the beginning. There really isn't much else to it.