ScottBot
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- May 2, 2005
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In case you didn't get the memo, when a man has sex with another man, that is an act of homosexuality, regardless of the reasoning behind it.Clearly you've already decided that you have a firm grasp on this subject so I'm sure there is little point in my responding. However....
Right. So, if this is a story about homosexuality, that would mean that there were not 5 straight men in the entire city? Not 5 straight women? How likely is that really? They were obviously not very good people but God never said why.
How do you know? Only Lot took in the angels, remember? Maybe it was a lack of hospitality. Obviously, that is unlikely but we really don't know.
Maybe their aggressiveness and abusiveness was their sin.
Maybe they wanted to rape the men not because of homosexuality but because it shows their superiority. That is understood by historians to be a very common practice in those times.
There are also many scholars who seem to think that the original writings didn't imply rape at all- or any other kind of sexual act.
God never said anything about homosexuality in the story of Sodom. Not once.
The only reason we have to believe it had anything to do with homosexuality is one story- the context of which is not fully understood and the words used have possibly been mistranslated.
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