dcyates
Senior Member
The initial response to the original post introducing this thread came closest, I think, to the actual intent of this passage. Too often these verses are read as though the author's purpose was to deal with the abstract issues of Calvinists and Arminians some 1500 years after it was first composed. The dispute between these two groups has fueled many fires but what is not taken into account nearly enough is the socio-historical context of the text, which is not the 'eternal security of the believer' but rather specifically with his readers' concern that unless the Levitical sacrifices demanded by the Five Books of Moses are duly offered their sins remain unforgiven. Whether they had in fact reintroduced sacrifices on their own cannot be determined from the evidence of this epistle. But it is obvious that they were fixated on the sacrificial system; and so it becomes the author's task to show them that Jesus' own atoning sacrifice of himself and his elevation to the office of high priest has brought about "a transformation of Torah" (7.12) which has fundamentally altered the sacrificial system and priesthood. When people have experienced salvation in such a profound manner as is described in vv. 4-5 "and then have fallen away" from faith by trusting not in Jesus' own sacrificial death and high-priestly office but in animal sacrifices and the system of the priests which the Torah set up to administer them--then "it is impossible to renew them so that they turn from their sin, as long as for themselves they keep (on) executing the Son of God on the cross all over again." The reason is that they thereby ignore what Jesus' death on the cross means, as indicated by their trusting in animal sacrifices instead of his sacrifice. Thus they "keep holding him up to public contempt" by not glorifying his death as the atoning sacrifice but as having no special significance, so that it is instead Jesus' execution as a criminal that becomes the dominant fact about it.
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