Ignatius21
Can somebody please pass the incense?
- May 21, 2009
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Let's have a look at these verses from John 15, and you tell me if man has no part in it, and if he does, then let's see if God does His part. I am going to put man's part in red, and God's part in blue.
So I ask, how do you contend this is not talking about man doing his part, and then God doing His part? (Matthew 13:14)
I'm curious about your language here. Few questions...
1. Do "God's part" and "Man's part" add up to a whole? Obviously we can't assign actual values or percentages to it, but in principle would you agree with something like I once heard Billy Graham say, "God does 99%, but man needs to still do that 1%"
2. If you agree with the above, would you say that Man's part is like 1%? 5%? 50%? 0.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001%?
3. "Then." Is there a relationship in time? Man does his part, then God responds by doing his part?
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