BDAG appears to contradict themselves. First they say "The articular infinitive is functioning as a direct object. Translating the article is thus not helpful." Then they translate "τὸ εἶναι"/to einai," "to be" a future tense vice present tense. "To einai is a present active infinitive which should be translated as "the being." Another case of old scholars stubbornly not wanting to give up their long held beliefs. According to my first Greek professor that was a problem translating the NIV. Jesus existed as equal to God, that equality was not something for Jesus to consider and decline as BDAG makes it appear. Is this not also essentially explained with kenoō in the next verse?
GDL (another old guy BTW) made the comments re: the articular infinitive - not BDAG. Apology for any confusion.
- "einai" is the present active infinitive of eimi
- "to" is an accusative neuter singular article making to einai an articular infinitive.
- per Greek Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace, the Accusative Articular Infinitive can be a direct object or apposition.
I see no reason to translate the article. It is acting as a marker to tell us the infinitive is functioning as a direct object of the verb. If you as an old scholar must hold onto translating it, I (an old Bible student and schooled practitioner in Biblical Greek) can work with it fully realizing how old guys can be stubborn.
We know Jesus is God. But kenosis tells us He did not function as fully God while in the human body that was prepared for Him. We also know that God made Jesus the/His Christ (YHWH's Christ per Ps2 referenced in Acts13), Son of God, King, Heir, Judge, High Priest, when He resurrected Him. We've been discussing some of this
here.
For me at this point I see this as the simplicity of what's being said in Phil2:6-7.
- [Jesus] [while or although] (my classifying the present participle) existing en form [of] God, regarded to be equal to/with God (articular infinitive phrase as direct object) not something to be claimed/asserted by gripping or grasping [holding onto it] (BDAG harpagmos), but emptied Himself, taking form of [a] slave becoming in likeness of men (verse 8 tells us more about this emptying, assumed outward appearance, obedience until death).
It doesn't seem that tough to me. The language and context are pretty clear. I have no issue with BDAG's elaborated definition. In fact, I think it's pretty good. It seems to say this is not just a new or off-the wall claim but an assertion or claim of fact that exists and is [not] being held onto, which goes very well with the initial present participle concerning His existing in form of God (this is why I elaborated a bit by classifying the present participle as temporal = while existing - or concessive = although existing). Point being He is God but emptied Himself of this status and subordinated to our Father. A maximized lesson in subordination for us BTW.
I did look at your posted article and seeing the length went to the end, so I did not get the full dose of it. I too try to keep up on articles, mostly from Journals, but it can be quite the task as I'm sure you know as an old guy who's done this for a while.