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laptoppop

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This is the false dichotomy creationists always rely on. It is easily shown to be a false dichotomy by reversing the terms.

Which is more authoritative? The creative work of God's hands or the fallible hermeneutics of Man? If, as in this case, the scripture can easily be interpreted as matching the actual creative works of God, then why in the world would we not accept it?
You are leaving off the point that the current scientific consensus is an interpretation of the evidence, not a proven point. The Scriptures and the creation point to the same thing. God created the Scriptures as a primary revelation so that people could understand more about Him and His works.

The key question here is not whether God's revelation or man's interpretation is more authoritative. Obviously it is God's revelation.
Great.
But which of God's revelations is more authoritative: scripture or creation?
Scripture, because it speaks in more detail and plainly. You would not know of many of God's precepts by just looking at his creation -- for example, the incarnation, the resurrection, forgiveness from sin, on and on. Again, looking at the creation involves just as much if not more interpretation than reading Scripture. Should not we interpret creation in the light of the more specific revelation? Are we bound to follow theories of man, especially when they are quite happily adopted by those who do not know God or the Scriptures?
Which of man's interpretations is more fallible: that of creation or that of scripture?
Exactly. Interpreting creation is more fallible than God's specific revelation to man. Take 100 people off the street and have them read Genesis 1-11. Then ask them if the Scripture teaches a 6 day creation and a global flood. The Scriptures speak plainly -- to everyone, not hidden in interpretations by "experts".
 
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theFijian

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laptoppop said:
Exactly. Interpreting creation is more fallible than God's specific revelation to man
No, not exactly. You are still not comparing like for like, until you see this you will not understand the fundamental issue at question here. Nobody should hold up any man-made theory as authoritative over God's revelation. Man made-theories on God (Theology) should not be held up as authoritative over scripture or nature, likewise man-made theories on Creation should not be held up as authoritative over scripture.

The issue then is, where does the scope of authority begin and end? On what does Scripture speak authoritatively? On what does Creation speak authoritately? Is there an overlap?

When we realise that knowledge does not equal wisdom, and that the full nature depth of Scripture and Creation are far beyond our understanding (not that this should stop us from seeking to understand them) this should humble us before God, unfortunately in many cases it does not.
 
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vossler

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But what conjecture, and what speculation? Are these scientific conjectures and speculations? I am, again, not asking what you think is wrong in evolution. I am asking which bits of it are not scientific.
It isn't scientific to state that man, over millions of years, evolved and came from a primordial soup into his present form.
But that bit of it is obviously scientific. Whether it is right or wrong, evolutionists claim that ultimately they will have scientific evidence to support such a view of life (not man's origins, mind you, nobody is claiming that a full-grown man climbed out of a vat of organic chemistry) origins, while creationists claim that they already have scientific evidence opposing such a view of life origins.
I don't really understand how it should be considered science where man 'guesses' how he came about. Evolutionists can claim that eventually they'll have the evidence, but until they do they're theories are nothing but guesses to me.
Whether such an origin for life is right or wrong, it is a scientific picture, and it can be either supported or disproved by science. Where are the bits of evolution that can't (note, not haven't, can't) be supported or disproved by scientific evidence? That's what I'm asking for. You see, it is precisely spiritual claims that cannot be supported or disproved by scientific evidence, but has to be settled by other means, namely by appeal to divine revelation.
The bits that can't be supported by the evidence is man evolving from a primitive life form.
It is only natural to state that the Bible only claims authority over things which man cannot learn about outside the Bible. The question is, what is there in evolution whose plausibility cannot be determined scientifically? It can only be in any such area that evolution conflicts with the Bible, because in any other area the Christian would acknowledge that science is a sufficient method of constructing knowledge.
True, but the question isn't plausibility, at least not for me, it is how we present our plausible arguments, do we report or state them as fact or will we be honest and say the field of science just doesn't know.
And yet you obviously interpret Psalm 139:13 and Job 36:32 "only metaphorically". So do you interpret the rest of those chapters in the same way that you interpret those verses in isolation?
I don't interpret a verse metaphorically and then automatically interpret the entire chapter the same way. Context is the key to determining everything.
 
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shernren

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The interesting thing is that we cannot "prove" history like we can repeatable observations or events or reactions, etc. Given that there are two competing explanations, shouldn't we prefer the one that lines up with the revelation of an omnipotent loving God? I do not believe that YEC is less probable given the evidence -- but even if you do, unless it is DISproven - it is the preferable explanation.

Anybody who's ever tried to fill in an application for permanent residency would doubt that we cannot "prove" history.

But more importantly, how does creation science line up with revelation? And how does evolution fail to line up with revelation? Does this difference come about because the two make different scientific predictions? Or different non-scientific predictions?
 
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shernren

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It isn't scientific to state that man, over millions of years, evolved and came from a primordial soup into his present form.
I don't really understand how it should be considered science where man 'guesses' how he came about. Evolutionists can claim that eventually they'll have the evidence, but until they do they're theories are nothing but guesses to me.
The bits that can't be supported by the evidence is man evolving from a primitive life form.

So what I'm hearing you say is that given the two scenarios

A. man was specially created 6,000 years ago from dust
B. man was evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors

science cannot distinguish between the two now?

And it can never?

I don't interpret a verse metaphorically and then automatically interpret the entire chapter the same way. Context is the key to determining everything.

What in the context of Psalm 139 and Job 36 tells you that you should interpret the particular verses we picked (v13 and v32, respectively) metaphorically?
 
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vossler

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Yet the only place where it matters, YECs have the exact same interpretation of Genesis as the atheists.
This still doesn’t change the fact that TEs continuously look for ways to disprove the Bible. That is a charge that can never be legitimately levied onto a YEC. Our entire purpose is to stand up for the entire Word of God, atheists certainly pick and choose many Scriptures they don’t understand to substantiate their views, however it is out of ignorance that they make their claims. YECs don’t selectively reinterpret Scripture to benefit us or justify a belief that contradicts Scripture. The same can’t be said for TEs.
So far you have shown nothing from the context to justify abandonment of the plain meaning. There was certainly nothing in the context that suggested to anybody before the time of Copernicus that these passages anything but the plain straightforward statements they appear to be.
Again, this implies there was something to be gained by knowing the relationship between the earth and sun. Given that there isn’t, why should this get into the depth that you wish to take this. It is only because it deflects from the clearly unbiblical interpretation that TEs force upon Genesis.

The rule says David Cooper: "When the plain sense of Scripture makes common sense, seek no other sense; therefore, take every word at its primary, ordinary, literal meaning, unless the facts of the context indicate clearly otherwise." The rule doesn't talk about there being arguments for a literal interpretation. It doesn't say if there are exegetical arguments for a literal interpretation then they trump exegetical arguments for a non literal unless the arguments of a non literal interpretation constitute exegetical proof. It talks about the plain meaning making common sense.
It’s not an all encompassing rule that one can plug any scenario into, it’s a general guideline for reading Scripture that works. If the question at hand can’t be answered by this rule then a more in-depth study is required.
But I have looked at the 'exegetical and logical reasoning' YEC sites use to argue the Genesis days have to be literal. All I have ever found is bad exegetical 'rules' contradicted by scripture and flawed logic.
This used to surprise me, but it no longer does.

You are a man of integrity, though obviously deeply committed to defending YEC. I think the double standard of insisting on a literal Genesis while reinterpreting the geocentrist passages to accommodate science, is going to be too much for someone who has such a deep love and respect for the word of God.
I’m not here to defend YEC but God’s Word. It just so happens that YEC has the same goal I do. :)
That’s the whole point, if others see my position as a double standard and are not willing to ask or don’t like my answers to you and others here then I don’t have a problem with that. Let them see it as a double standard, that’s their prerogative. I’ve learned not to expect anyone to change their view; I’m not here to do anything other than to stand up for the Word of God.
And there are the lurkers. They need to see which arguments hold up against scripture and science.
That used to be my justification for coming here, it was to defend God’s Word to the lurkers, but now I do it just for me and if a lurker should benefit then I consider that gravy.

Ignoring the passages that talk of the sun hurrying around to the place it rises... Luther called Copernicus a fool because he contradicted what was so plainly written in scripture, Joshua commanded the sun to stop.
Could it be that Luther made a grievous error in that assessment and its importance?

A different issue, you argument was that there is no support for evolution in scripture, which clearly isn't an issue when you can reinterpret geocentrist passages with no scriptural support for heliocentrism.
This is way that TEs seem bent on justifying their interpretation of Genesis, by comparing it to completely unrelated issues like geocentrism, a flat earth, mustard seeds, etc.

Understandable, it is a long list. But I should point out that even the least of these brethern is more reason than you have for reinterpreting the geocentrist passages.
:swoon: :)

Hosea 6:2 After two days he will revive us; on the third day he will raise us up, that we may live before him. The Rabbis have interpreted this as three exiles, or three temple periods. Clearly they didn't see a problem with day being used with an ordinal number. Neither did Jesus, Luke 13:32 And he said to them, "Go and tell that fox, 'Behold, I cast out demons and perform cures today and tomorrow, and the third day I finish my course. I would prefer to take what he says over some YEC expositor trying to prove a point.
Evening and morning are not used in those two verses, be that as it may though are you stating that when Hosea 6:2 and Luke 13:32 state “third day” they could in fact be really meaning third hour or year, etc.?
The context is people puzzled by God's timetable and why Jesus did not come back when they thought he should. Peter goes and discusses the span of history from the creation to the end of the world, drawing in Moses statement about God's days, paraphrasing it 2Pet 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. He even end up discussing another of God's non literal days, the day of the Lord.
This is how you then take the very specific days of Genesis 1 and allow them to mean whatever you choose for them to mean?
YECs make the same mistake as the people Peter is criticizing. They try to tie God down to a human understanding of his timetable. Peter's answer takes Moses' statement, which was give in the context of the creation in Psalm 90 and applies it the end times, but Peter's context includes the creation too. The application to creation is as well established in the context as its application to the 'day' of the Lord.
I find this so convoluted and amazing. YECs are trying to tie God down to a human understanding of His timetable. :scratch: It is in fact the exact opposite, it demonstrates how God brought creation into existence via language simple enough for humans to readily understand. Sadly it is humans that wish to take the simple and make it complex by introducing their own man-centered theories of what God did. YECs don’t bring in anything extra biblical into the text, it is only the evolutionist that does so.

Gen 1:26 Then God said, "Let us make Adam in our image, after our likeness. And let them have dominion...
Gen 5:2 He created them male and female, and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.
As far as I know it is only the KJV that uses the term Adam in Gen 5:2. All the other versions I’ve come across use man.
Yeah I have seen the link before, I wasn't impressed. The creation account is really a beautiful simple story whose plain meaning is straightforward and clear. It should not need to be twisted into knots to make it fit chapter 1.
Please unknot it then so that everyone else can see the plain meaning you’ve found.
 
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vossler

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So what I'm hearing you say is that given the two scenarios

A. man was specially created 6,000 years ago from dust
B. man was evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors

science cannot distinguish between the two now?

And it can never?
That is correct! Understanding has been reached, at least for the moment. ;)

I wouldn't go so far as to say it never can. That isn't for me to say, I just know they haven't yet.
What in the context of Psalm 139 and Job 36 tells you that you should interpret the particular verses we picked (v13 and v32, respectively) metaphorically?
Is there a point to this because I don't wish to exegetically dissect these two chapters of the Bible. Let's get specific and make a point here. Is your point that you interpret them otherwise? If so, please share.
 
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Mallon

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That is correct! Understanding has been reached, at least for the moment. ;)
Your position re: the AiG confuses me, then, vossler. Here you are saying that science can never be used to verify historical events, and yet in another thread you offer praise to Ham's "museum", which claims to explain 6-day creation and Noah's flood with science! I can't help but think you're being somewhat inconsistent.
 
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vossler

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Your position re: the AiG confuses me, then, vossler. Here you are saying that science can never be used to verify historical events, and yet in another thread you offer praise to Ham's "museum", which claims to explain 6-day creation and Noah's flood with science! I can't help but think you're being somewhat inconsistent.
Where did I state that "science can never be used to verify historical events?" :confused: I most certainly believe that in some cases it most certainly can.

I also never praised the Creation Museum because it uses science to explain a 6-day creation and Noah's flood. Please be accurate and consistent when quoting me. :sigh:

I praised it because it gave God the credit for creation, nothing more.
 
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Mallon

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Where did I state that "science can never be used to verify historical events?" :confused: I most certainly believe that in some cases it most certainly can.
In your last post. Where I quoted you. If I am wrong, please correct me. Underwhat circumstances do you feel science can be used to verify historical events, and under what circumstances can it not be used?
I praised it because it gave God the credit for creation, nothing more.
Great. Glad we've clarified that. You do not support the "science" being used by Ham's institution. You simply are glad that it gives credit to God, who created everything. I am, too, for that matter.
 
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vossler

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In your last post. Where I quoted you. If I am wrong, please correct me.
You never actually quoted me, yes you were wrong and even though you didn't ask to be forgiven; I forgive you. :)
Underwhat circumstances do you feel science can be used to verify historical events, and under what circumstances can it not be used?
It can be used anytime as long as it doesn't rely on conjecture and speculation.
Great. Glad we've clarified that. You do not support the "science" being used by Ham's institution. You simply are glad that it gives credit to God, who created everything. I am, too, for that matter.
Please don't misquote me again. :sigh: Where did I even mention science, please show me. I didn't, so I would appreciate it if you didn't attribute that to me.

I have said and will continue to say that I'm extremely glad that it gives all the credit of creation to God.
 
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Mallon

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You never actually quoted me
I must be imagining that quote I see under post #128, then...
It can be used anytime as long as it doesn't rely on conjecture and speculation.
But science-- all science -- starts with conjecture, vossler. That's how the scientific method works. We start by forming hypotheses, which are speculations informed by our understanding of the world.
Please don't misquote me again. :sigh: Where did I even mention science, please show me. I didn't, so I would appreciate it if you didn't attribute that to me.
You never used the word "science." I never said you did. I am deducing it. You've admitted here that science cannot be used to verify the Genesis creation account. Ham's Grande Creation Diorama Display says the opposite -- that science can be used to explain the Genesis creation account. You MUST therefore reject Ham's origins science because you do not even agree on the fundamentals of its application.

Why dance around it?
 
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vossler

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But science-- all science -- starts with conjecture, vossler. That's how the scientific method works. We start by forming hypotheses, which are speculations informed by our understanding of the world.
I don't have a problem with science starting with conjecture and speculation, the problem is when it's findings still rely on it.
You've admitted here that science cannot be used to verify the Genesis creation account.
Where did I admit that? :scratch:
 
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shernren

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That is correct! Understanding has been reached, at least for the moment. ;)

But the folks at AiG are doing nothing but saying that given the two scenarios:

A. man was specially created 6,000 years ago from dust
B. man was evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors

the science we have today is completely incompatible with scenario B. Do you agree with their assessment?

I wouldn't go so far as to say it never can. That isn't for me to say, I just know they haven't yet.

But I think creationists should know well enough to be able to say whether it ever can or not. It has to do with the nature of those events. If man really had evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors, do you not expect that this would leave many scientific clues which science can detect? Contrariwise, do you not believe that science can falsify that scenario by finding clues that could not possibly have been left by that event?

Is there a point to this because I don't wish to exegetically dissect these two chapters of the Bible. Let's get specific and make a point here. Is your point that you interpret them otherwise? If so, please share.

So what I'm getting is that your reasons for interpreting those two verses as purely metaphorical is entirely exegetical. Fine then. Let's narrow the scope then.

If I say, "Surely the darkness shall cover me,
and the light about me be night,"
even the darkness is not dark to you;
the night is bright as the day, for darkness is as light with you.
For you formed my inward parts;
you knitted me together in my mother's womb.
I praise you, for I am fearfully and wonderfully made.
Wonderful are your works; my soul knows it very well.
(Psalms 139:11-14 ESV)

You say that you interpret v. 13 ("for You formed my inward parts; You knitted me together in my mother's womb") figuratively. What do you mean when you say that you do? And does that mean that you similarly interpret vv. 11, 12 and 14 "figuratively"? What might that mean? And if not, what is the difference between v. 13 and the other three verses here?
 
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vossler

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But the folks at AiG are doing nothing but saying that given the two scenarios:

A. man was specially created 6,000 years ago from dust
B. man was evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors

the science we have today is completely incompatible with scenario B. Do you agree with their assessment?
I personally don’t like to comment much on scientific findings, there’s a lot of complicated analysis that goes into it and I’m not qualified to make specific determinations. What I can do is look at the evidence that is being provided and determine whether it is conceivable or supports the findings that state x when we have y. But to answer your question, I have no reason not to agree with their assessment.
But I think creationists should know well enough to be able to say whether it ever can or not. It has to do with the nature of those events. If man really had evolved a few million years ago from hominid ancestors, do you not expect that this would leave many scientific clues which science can detect? Contrariwise, do you not believe that science can falsify that scenario by finding clues that could not possibly have been left by that event?
I think you give too much credit to science. I don’t believe this is something we should be able to detect, I mean the whole idea of definitely stating what occurred millions of years ago is just plain ludicrous to me. Like I’ve said before, we can’t hardly determine what exactly happened yesterday and for us to claim we know what happened a very long time ago, without any historical records, is foolishness.
So what I'm getting is that your reasons for interpreting those two verses as purely metaphorical is entirely exegetical. Fine then. Let's narrow the scope then.

If I say, "Surely the darkness shall cover me,
and the light about me be night,"
even the darkness is not dark to you;
the night is bright as the day, for darkness is as light with you.
For you formed my inward parts;
you knitted me together in my mother's womb.
I praise you, for I am fearfully and wonderfully made.
Wonderful are your works; my soul knows it very well.
(Psalms 139:11-14 ESV)

You say that you interpret v. 13 ("for You formed my inward parts; You knitted me together in my mother's womb") figuratively. What do you mean when you say that you do? And does that mean that you similarly interpret vv. 11, 12 and 14 "figuratively"? What might that mean? And if not, what is the difference between v. 13 and the other three verses here?
Essentially what these verses collectively are saying is that no matter where we are God is present. Verse 13 specifically tells us that God was there when I was conceived and oversaw my development in my mother’s womb. Verses 11 and 12 tell us that God sees everything, regardless of the circumstances and verse 14 simply acknowledges and praises the wonderful work of God. So are you now going to tell me that these verses mean something entirely different to you? I really don’t understand where this is going, it’s not like this is really all that difficult to understand, at least it wasn’t for me.
 
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shernren

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I think you give too much credit to science. I don’t believe this is something we should be able to detect, I mean the whole idea of definitely stating what occurred millions of years ago is just plain ludicrous to me. Like I’ve said before, we can’t hardly determine what exactly happened yesterday and for us to claim we know what happened a very long time ago, without any historical records, is foolishness.

I give too much credit to science? You just said:

But to answer your question, I have no reason not to agree with their assessment.

their assessment being precisely that the science we have conclusively disproves the idea that humans evolved from hominids millions years ago.

So what is it now?

On the one hand, you say it's foolish to use science to determine the truth or falsity of a historical scenario.
On the other hand, when creation scientists claim to use science to determine the falsity of the historical scenario of evolution, you see no reason to disagree.

Is the biological history of man a scientific issue, or not?

Essentially what these verses collectively are saying is that no matter where we are God is present. Verse 13 specifically tells us that God was there when I was conceived and oversaw my development in my mother’s womb. Verses 11 and 12 tell us that God sees everything, regardless of the circumstances and verse 14 simply acknowledges and praises the wonderful work of God. So are you now going to tell me that these verses mean something entirely different to you? I really don’t understand where this is going, it’s not like this is really all that difficult to understand, at least it wasn’t for me.

But verse 13 doesn't specifically say that God "was there" and "oversaw" embryonic development. Try telling a knitting woman that she is just "overseeing" her knitting! Haven't you deviated from the obvious meaning of the passage? I'm not saying that it's wrong - I just want to hear your reasoning for it.
 
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vossler

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I give too much credit to science? You just said:

their assessment being precisely that the science we have conclusively disproves the idea that humans evolved from hominids millions years ago.

So what is it now?
I thought they said that science couldn't support millions of years. How is that giving too much credit to science? It would appear to be limiting science. I didn't see anything that mentions disproving, just that there wasn't enough there to prove it.
On the one hand, you say it's foolish to use science to determine the truth or falsity of a historical scenario.
On the other hand, when creation scientists claim to use science to determine the falsity of the historical scenario of evolution, you see no reason to disagree.
I don't have a problem with science trying to determine the truth or falsity of a scenario, I just would like a little more integrity to be displayed when the findings are made known. BTW, hyperbole on the scientific front happens from both sides. I think some creationists jump on the first tidbit of potential evidence to support their cause in an effort to counter the onslaught of people and dollars devoted to the opposite. Sadly this then further diminishes their credibility.

All I ask is that whatever evidence is presented, it should be presented accurately. If it is based on conjecture and speculation then say so, but don't pass it off as fact.
Is the biological history of man a scientific issue, or not?
Is a scientific issue, but not entirely.
But verse 13 doesn't specifically say that God "was there" and "oversaw" embryonic development. Try telling a knitting woman that she is just "overseeing" her knitting! Haven't you deviated from the obvious meaning of the passage? I'm not saying that it's wrong - I just want to hear your reasoning for it.
No it doesn't specifically say that but given that God in omnipresent that is implied. So what is the obvious meaning of the passage to you?
 
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This still doesn’t change the fact that TEs continuously look for ways to disprove the Bible. That is a charge that can never be legitimately levied onto a YEC. Our entire purpose is to stand up for the entire Word of God, atheists certainly pick and choose many Scriptures they don’t understand to substantiate their views, however it is out of ignorance that they make their claims. YECs don’t selectively reinterpret Scripture to benefit us or justify a belief that contradicts Scripture. The same can’t be said for TEs.
Sure you do. You selectively reinterpret scripture all the time. God didn't create the animals when he was looking for a partner for Adam, he 'had' created them before. Mustard seeds are not the smallest seed, geocentrism... TEs don't look for ways to disprove the bible, we look for ways to show the inconsistency of a YEC exegesis that claims to understand all about how God communicates to us in scripture.

Again, this implies there was something to be gained by knowing the relationship between the earth and sun. Given that there isn’t, why should this get into the depth that you wish to take this. It is only because it deflects from the clearly unbiblical interpretation that TEs force upon Genesis.
Again you pick and choose which scriptures are important. All we are doing is approaching Genesis the same way you approach the geocentrist verses. Looking for a better way to understand the passages when science tells us the traditional interpretation cannot be right. If we are forcing a 'clearly unbiblical interpretation' on Genesis then you are doing the same with the geocentrist verses. That is not 'standing up for the entire word of God'. Double standards, Vossler, you condemn TE for doing the very thing you do yourself.

It’s not an all encompassing rule that one can plug any scenario into, it’s a general guideline for reading Scripture that works. If the question at hand can’t be answered by this rule then a more in-depth study is required.
What question is there the passage that can't be answered by Cooper's rule? It is very simple and straighforward and covers every eventuality. The plain sense does make sense and there is nothing in the context or anywhere else in scripture that suggests any other meaning than the simple plain sense. The only reason you think more indepth study is required is because the plain sense is contradicted by science. But that never made a YEC think other possible interpretations should be considered for Genesis or that or that a more in depth study might be required to find those interpretation. It should have of course. But there is a very simple answer, the one YECs use all the time for Genesis. Simply say the science is wrong and reserve any indepth study to looking for reason to support the plain reading.

But if it is not an all encompassing rule, how do you decide when to apply it? How do you know it should definitely without a doubt be applied to Genesis, but certainly not to any of the geocentrist passages?

This used to surprise me, but it no longer does.
I may start a thread on it.

I’m not here to defend YEC but God’s Word. It just so happens that YEC has the same goal I do. :) That’s the whole point, if others see my position as a double standard and are not willing to ask or don’t like my answers to you and others here then I don’t have a problem with that. Let them see it as a double standard, that’s their prerogative. I’ve learned not to expect anyone to change their view; I’m not here to do anything other than to stand up for the Word of God.
It doesn't need you to defend it. You, on the other hand, do need to find a way that you can handle the word of God with the integrity that is in your heart. David Copper is no friend to you in this.

That used to be my justification for coming here, it was to defend God’s Word to the lurkers, but now I do it just for me and if a lurker should benefit then I consider that gravy.
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Could it be that Luther made a grievous error in that assessment and its importance?
Luther could see quite clearly what the plain meaning of the text was. I would say though, Luther would have been astonished at people thinking they could 'to stand up for the entire Word of God' by dismissing chunks of it as unimportant.

This is way that TEs seem bent on justifying their interpretation of Genesis, by comparing it to completely unrelated issues like geocentrism, a flat earth, mustard seeds, etc.
They are exactly the same issue. What to do when science contradicts a literal interpretation. The mustard seed example simply shows how David Cooper's exegetical scheme falls flat on its face when the only science you need is a rather small ruler. Flat earth was an issue that came up in the early church when the equivalent of today's YECs were insisting on rejecting the pagan Greek philosophy of a spherical earth in favour of plain meaning of the bible. The church had more sense and stuck with the pagan science. In the 16th century the church faced the exact same problem when the plain meaning of scripture was contradicted by the new astronomy of Copernicus and Galileo. The church came up with a completely new way of interpreting these passages, that became so well established you now think it is the obvious meaning of the text. It was not obvious to anyone, ever, until the church had to deal with the conflict between science and their plain meaning interpretation.

And so history repeats itself as modern YECs think this is the very first time there has been a conflict between science and interpretation, and of course the plain meaning of scripture is always correct. Oblivious to the fact that that what they see as plain meaning of geocentrist and flat earth scripture are the non literal interpretations that have won out over the plain meaning in the debates of the past.

Evening and morning are not used in those two verses,
You sometimes get an interesting sequence of arguments for literal day in discussions with YECs. It starts off with the claim that when day is used with a number it is always literal. Of course any good search of scripture can throw up a half dozen passages where that is not the case. Then you get the more refined version, (some discussions come straight in at this stage): When day used with an ordinal number is always literal. This of course leaves our good friends Hosea 6:2 and Luke 13:32. The argument is further refined. A day with an ordinal number and evening and morning is always literal. But unfortunately by then they are running out of bible. How many verses are there in the bible outside Gen 1 that have day, a number, and evening and morning? What sort of precedence is that supposed to set?

But the whole argument is based on a logical fallacy. No number of white swans could tell you that all swans were white, but a single black swan could tell you that they weren't (John Stuart Mill/Popper).
The YEC argument tries to prove you can't have a figurative day if it is used with a number (swans can't be black) by counting all the times day is literal with a number (white swans). but it does not follow. No matter how many times a literal day is accompanied by a number, it still tells us nothing about whether non literal days can have numbers as well. Not only that but we have the black swans, the verses where day is used figuratively with a number.

What if we wanted to argued that at the last supper wine really was turned into literal blood.* Jesus describes it as the blood of the covenant shed for us. Let's use the YEC argument. Everywhere else in the bible when blood is used with covenant it is literal blood. Everywhere else in the bible that mentions blood being shed it is literal blood. This has to prove the blood in the last supper is literal doesn't it? No. It doesn't matter how many verses there are with literal blood and covenant or shed, it still would not mean the wine became literal blood. No matter how many white swans you count it doesn't make a single black swan white.

*Of course while the Catholic church does does believe the wine is transformed into Jesus blood, they certainly do not use this argument.

be that as it may though are you stating that when Hosea 6:2 and Luke 13:32 state “third day” they could in fact be really meaning third hour or year, etc.?
This is how you then take the very specific days of Genesis 1 and allow them to mean whatever you choose for them to mean?
Jesus seems to be referring to the third year of his ministry. Hosea may be a more poetic general use, possibly referring to a two stage gradual building up and restoration, given as a poetic parallelism, though as I said rabbinical interpretations saw it as restoring the nation after three different periods of exile.

I find this so convoluted and amazing. YECs are trying to tie God down to a human understanding of His timetable. :scratch: It is in fact the exact opposite, it demonstrates how God brought creation into existence via language simple enough for humans to readily understand. Sadly it is humans that wish to take the simple and make it complex by introducing their own man-centered theories of what God did. YECs don’t bring in anything extra biblical into the text, it is only the evolutionist that does so.
The people Peter warns about were taking the simple words of the bible about Jesus' return and wondering where he has got to. 'Behold I am coming soon' What could be simpler? You don't need to being anything extrabiblical into the text to misread it. All you need to do is think God is speaking from a human perspective. That is the mistake Peter warns against. But of course YECs do bring extra biblical science into the geocentrist text, their real mistake is not doing it with Genesis.

As far as I know it is only the KJV that uses the term Adam in Gen 5:2. All the other versions I’ve come across use man.
KJV and the Hebrew. Notice that the text actually says adam is being used as a name here. The LXX and Apostles Bible use Adam, so does the JPS - the Jewish Publication Society version, Green's Literal version and the World English Bible WEB.

Please unknot it then so that everyone else can see the plain meaning you’ve found.
Just read what it says in the text. There are no knots in it.
 
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Sure you do. You selectively reinterpret scripture all the time. God didn't create the animals when he was looking for a partner for Adam, he 'had' created them before. Mustard seeds are not the smallest seed, geocentrism... TEs don't look for ways to disprove the bible, we look for ways to show the inconsistency of a YEC exegesis that claims to understand all about how God communicates to us in scripture.
I don't have issues with mustard seeds, geocentrism, flat earth, etc., but you do. Do I ever bring them up? No, it is only the TE that does. I don’t have issues with those things and how they relate to an understanding of God’s Word. It is the TE who makes Jesus either ignorant or a liar, discredits Scripture by making claims for it that it itself doesn’t. No, this YEC takes 2 Timothy 2:15 very seriously:
Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who has no need to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth.
Interestingly verse 14 tells us: “not to quarrel about words, which does no good, but only ruins the hearers.” I believe that is exactly what TEs continually do, quarrel about words in order to divert attention from their clearly unbiblical position.

You may claim that you’re looking for ways to show inconsistency in the YEC exegesis, but without an exegesis of your own that is pretty disingenuous.

It doesn't need you to defend it.
Oh contraire, yes it does. 2 Timothy 3:16 states:
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness
I take that very serious.
They are exactly the same issue. What to do when science contradicts a literal interpretation. The mustard seed example simply shows how David Cooper's exegetical scheme falls flat on its face when the only science you need is a rather small ruler.
It’s too bad Jesus wasn’t smart enough not to fall on His face and use the scientific methods like you do. Maybe the second time around he’ll see the error of His ways. What do you think?

And so history repeats itself as modern YECs think this is the very first time there has been a conflict between science and interpretation, and of course the plain meaning of scripture is always correct. Oblivious to the fact that that what they see as plain meaning of geocentrist and flat earth scripture are the non literal interpretations that have won out over the plain meaning in the debates of the past.
Without the God of science and the scientific methods of modern man we’d still be in the dark ages of evolution where primitive man couldn’t count, read or write and lived in the trees. Thankfully we’ve evolved beyond the point where the early writers of Scripture were so foolish in their writings and can categorically dismiss their unintelligent ramblings and replace it with whatever fits our fancy.

This of course leaves our good friends Hosea 6:2 and Luke 13:32.
I had to chuckle when I read that. Good friends!

No matter how many times a literal day is accompanied by a number, it still tells us nothing about whether non literal days can have numbers as well.
Swans notwithstanding, no matter how you twist and contort the Scriptures to say what you wish them to say they still say evening and morning on a specific day. It just doesn’t get any simpler than that.

Jesus seems to be referring to the third year of his ministry. Hosea may be a more poetic general use, possibly referring to a two stage gradual building up and restoration, given as a poetic parallelism, though as I said rabbinical interpretations saw it as restoring the nation after three different periods of exile.
So is this then what you too believe?

The people Peter warns about were taking the simple words of the bible about Jesus' return and wondering where he has got to. 'Behold I am coming soon' What could be simpler? You don't need to bring anything extrabiblical into the text to misread it. All you need to do is think God is speaking from a human perspective. That is the mistake Peter warns against.
Of course these are simple words, just like those in Genesis ar. Just like Genesis they too have no need for anything extrabiblical in order to understand, that’s the point I’m making. It is the TE who continually brings in extrabiblical information to assist him/her in their understanding.


KJV and the Hebrew. Notice that the text actually says adam is being used as a name here. The LXX and Apostles Bible use Adam, so does the JPS - the Jewish Publication Society version, Green's Literal version and the World English Bible WEB.
Here’s how Easton’s Bible Dictionary defines Adam.
( 1.) Heb. 'Adam, used as the proper name of the first man. The name is derived from a word meaning "to be red," and thus the first man was called Adam because he was formed from the red earth. It is also the generic name of the human race ( Gen 1:26,27; 5:2; 8:21; Deu 8:3). Its equivalents are the Latin homo and the Greek anthropos ( Mat 5:13,16). It denotes also man in opposition to woman ( Gen 3:12; Mat 19:10).
Notice that in Genesis 5:2 the term Adam is used as the generic name for the human race, hence why modern translations no longer use the name and have replaced it with man.
Just read what it says in the text. There are no knots in it.
Well if there are no knots and you believe I’ve got knots in my interpretation, don’t you think it is appropriate for you to share your exegetical and unknotted version?
 
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