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Dave01

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You sometimes get an interesting sequence of arguments for literal day in discussions with YECs. It starts off with the claim that when day is used with a number it is always literal. Of course any good search of scripture can throw up a half dozen passages where that is not the case. Then you get the more refined version, (some discussions come straight in at this stage): When day used with an ordinal number is always literal. This of course leaves our good friends Hosea 6:2 and Luke 13:32. The argument is further refined. A day with an ordinal number and evening and morning is always literal. But unfortunately by then they are running out of bible. How many verses are there in the bible outside Gen 1 that have day, a number, and evening and morning? What sort of precedence is that supposed to set?

What this person is arguing about here, is the hebrew usage in Genesis for a literal day. He refuses to acknowledge that the hebrew word "yom" with a numerical adjective indicates a 24 hour period, and has always indicated a 24 hour period,..

5 (ASV) And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And there was evening and there was morning, one day.

This is the evidence for that passage,..

(3) Argument from ordinal prefix. In the 119 cases in Moses's writings where the Hebrew word yom stands in conjunction with a numerical adjective (first, second, third, etc.), it never means anything other than a literal day. The same is true of the 357 instances outside of the Pentateuch, where numerical adjectives occur.

http://www.cmfnow.com/articles/pt555.htm

All the instances were counted up and analyzed. The usage in the hebrew never means anything other than a literal 24 hour period.

The person I quoted will attempt to present any amount of questions and such to try and sidestep the obvious presented here, but the evidence stands.
 
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philadiddle

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What this person is arguing about here, is the hebrew usage in Genesis for a literal day. He refuses to acknowledge that the hebrew word "yom" with a numerical adjective indicates a 24 hour period, and has always indicated a 24 hour period,..

The person I quoted will attempt to present any amount of questions and such to try and sidestep the obvious presented here, but the evidence stands.
I'm sure it means a literal 24 hour day, just like the word "flood" actually means "flood" in the account of Noah and the ark. But they are still myths. The theology in the myths is true, but they did not literally happen. The 7 days is a model for us humans, it is symbolic for us as a theological truth, but this does not necessitate it being literally true.

As far as I'm concerned, "Yom" really means a literally 24 hour day, but it's still not literal.
 
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Digit

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I'm sure it means a literal 24 hour day, just like the word "flood" actually means "flood" in the account of Noah and the ark. But they are still myths. The theology in the myths is true, but they did not literally happen. The 7 days is a model for us humans, it is symbolic for us as a theological truth, but this does not necessitate it being literally true.

As far as I'm concerned, "Yom" really means a literally 24 hour day, but it's still not literal.
Hey philadiddile,

I find that hard to understand. Not only does God relate that Yom is a period of time, He the defines it as having a morning and an evening. You cannot take that figuratively... there would be no way to reconcile that with God rather just saying, that He took a period of time to create things. Instead he specifically took a week, and there are references to this further in the Bible too, for example in Exodus.

Digit
 
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gluadys

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Hey philadiddile,

I find that hard to understand. Not only does God relate that Yom is a period of time, He the defines it as having a morning and an evening. You cannot take that figuratively...
Digit

Yes, it is a bit confusing to read philadiddle's statement that the days are literal but still not literal.

The actual contrast is between days that are historical and days that are literary.

Literary days are literal in the context of the story they are in. But outside of the story they have no connection to historical days.

So when you read 'day' ('yom') in Genesis, there is no reason to give it any figurative meaning. It means 'day' in the ordinary sense of the term.

But that doesn't change the fact that Genesis is giving us a story about creation, not the history of creation. The days of Genesis never existed in a literal, factual, historical sense. They only exist in the context of a story told about creation for a spiritual purpose.

In short, the word 'day' is literal, but the story as a whole is not.
 
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shernren

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I thought they said that science couldn't support millions of years. How is that giving too much credit to science? It would appear to be limiting science. I didn't see anything that mentions disproving, just that there wasn't enough there to prove it.

So in other words, what you think creationists are saying is

"Well, science can't really show us whether or not the earth is young."

?

I don't have a problem with science trying to determine the truth or falsity of a scenario, I just would like a little more integrity to be displayed when the findings are made known. BTW, hyperbole on the scientific front happens from both sides. I think some creationists jump on the first tidbit of potential evidence to support their cause in an effort to counter the onslaught of people and dollars devoted to the opposite. Sadly this then further diminishes their credibility.

Fair enough. I'm enjoying my spectator view of your discussion with gluadys about the evidence, and I will leave this matter in her good hands.

Is a scientific issue, but not entirely.

So the bits about the timing of events are non-scientific? What else is non-scientific?

No it doesn't specifically say that but given that God in omnipresent that is implied. So what is the obvious meaning of the passage to you?

Well, what do knitters do? Isn't the most obvious meaning of the passage that human development in the womb is a supernatural process directly performed by God? A knitting frame can't put together a tapestry by itself; nor should we expect the human womb to put a human child together by itself. As a knitting frame needs a knitter so the human womb requires God.

Isn't that the most obvious meaning of the passage?
 
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Dave01

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Yes, it is a bit confusing to read philadiddle's statement that the days are literal but still not literal.

The actual contrast is between days that are historical and days that are literary.

Literary days are literal in the context of the story they are in. But outside of the story they have no connection to historical days.

So when you read 'day' ('yom') in Genesis, there is no reason to give it any figurative meaning. It means 'day' in the ordinary sense of the term.

But that doesn't change the fact that Genesis is giving us a story about creation, not the history of creation. The days of Genesis never existed in a literal, factual, historical sense. They only exist in the context of a story told about creation for a spiritual purpose.

In short, the word 'day' is literal, but the story as a whole is not.

Well, there would be something that points to a figurative sense implied, or a prophetic sense spoken by GOD at that moment for us to understand that. The bad thing about asserting a position like that is how everything of GOD's word then becomes figurative rather than absolute in the sense of truth.

That view can be applied to just about anything then,..GOD didn't say "Thou shall not murder" and also Jesus never said "Ye must be born again."

The bible eventually becomes absolutely rediculous with that view.

There must be something in the sentence structure that declares those passages figurative and not literal to us for them to indicate different. Just believing what the world says does not make the language mean anything different, it still means a literal 24 hour day. They could heap mounds of evidence before us, but it still wouldn't change how it reads.
 
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Digit

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Well, there would be something that points to a figurative sense implied, or a prophetic sense spoken by GOD at that moment for us to understand that. The bad thing about asserting a position like that is how everything of GOD's word then becomes figurative rather than absolute in the sense of truth.

That view can be applied to just about anything then,..GOD didn't say "Thou shall not murder" and also Jesus never said "Ye must be born again."

The bible eventually becomes absolutely rediculous with that view.

There must be something in the sentence structure that declares those passages figurative and not literal to us for them to indicate different. Just believing what the world says does not make the language mean anything different, it still means a literal 24 hour day. They could heap mounds of evidence before us, but it still wouldn't change how it reads.
Yes! Thank you. :)

Digit
 
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gluadys

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Well, there would be something that points to a figurative sense implied,

There is. God's creation.

Also the literary structure of the text. It is a very well-crafted liturgy.

There must be something in the sentence structure that declares those passages figurative and not literal to us for them to indicate different.

No, sentence structure has very little to do with the historicity or literalness of a text. A poem is a poem whether it is mostly a literal description or mostly symbolism. A narrative is a narrative is a narrative whether or not it is historical. In fact writers of fictional narratives aim to make the narrative seem historical. It is called 'veresimilitude' i.e. likeness to fact.
 
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Dave01

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There is. God's creation.

Also the literary structure of the text. It is a very well-crafted liturgy.

No, sentence structure has very little to do with the historicity or literalness of a text. A poem is a poem whether it is mostly a literal description or mostly symbolism. A narrative is a narrative is a narrative whether or not it is historical. In fact writers of fictional narratives aim to make the narrative seem historical. It is called 'veresimilitude' i.e. likeness to fact.

Yes it does. And you're not providing anything that points the sentence structure towards being a narrative, or a poem. Something has to point that out for anyone to understand it as such, elsewise you're saying that The Holy Spirit misleads His own people and teaches them wrong when He provides a witness of a literal event to them.
 
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crawfish

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Yes it does. And you're not providing anything that points the sentence structure towards being a narrative, or a poem. Something has to point that out for anyone to understand it as such, elsewise you're saying that The Holy Spirit misleads His own people and teaches them wrong when He provides a witness of a literal event to them.
Aren't you saying that the Father misleads people when nature contradicts what the Bible says?

With your literalist view, you've got to accept either one or the other. Either God's word misleads, or His creation does. There is no other possibility.

Unless you opt to study how God's word might read differently than a literal view and still be valid.
 
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theFijian

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Yes it does. And you're not providing anything that points the sentence structure towards being a narrative, or a poem. Something has to point that out for anyone to understand it as such,
It does, the use of figurative language, mythical elements in the story, (talking snakes etc) and the repetitive cadence structure.
elsewise you're saying that The Holy Spirit misleads His own people and teaches them wrong when He provides a witness of a literal event to them.

So is the Holy Spirit misleading the protestants or the catholics? The presbyterians or the anglicans? The paedobaptists or the credobaptists? The postmillenialists or the premillenialists or the amillenialists?
 
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Dave01

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It does, the use of figurative language, mythical elements in the story, (talking snakes etc) and the repetitive cadence structure.

Well sorry, but the hebrew is only translated one certain way, and the day described in Genesis is translated as a literal day.

The idea that an animal would talk by the prompting from GOD is not just witnessed here, it is also witnessed where balaams a*s talked.

So is the Holy Spirit misleading the protestants or the catholics? The presbyterians or the anglicans? The paedobaptists or the credobaptists? The postmillenialists or the premillenialists or the amillenialists?

The question was directed at the text. Did The Holy Spirit that inspired Moses to write this text lie to him? Was GOD lieing to him?

I say no.
 
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Dave01

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Aren't you saying that the Father misleads people when nature contradicts what the Bible says?

With your literalist view, you've got to accept either one or the other. Either God's word misleads, or His creation does. There is no other possibility.

Unless you opt to study how God's word might read differently than a literal view and still be valid.

My literalist view is just fine, because that is how the hebrew reads and how The Holy Spirit witnesses it. I never place stock in the worlds view of things, I understand who they take their orders from and their intentions.

Let me make something clear, I'm a blood-bought, Spirit-filled, tongue-speaking Christian that has been in the presence of Jesus, had Him speak to me, and understand quite well what shall come to pass. I will trust His word over anything the world attempts to describe as truth. GOD is absolute truth. Everything points to HIM, and I will trust in HIM alone, not mankind.
 
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vossler

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So in other words, what you think creationists are saying is

"Well, science can't really show us whether or not the earth is young."
I can't speak for other creationists, but that's exactly what I'm saying. :D
So the bits about the timing of events are non-scientific? What else is non-scientific?
The creation event itself is not scientific.
Well, what do knitters do? Isn't the most obvious meaning of the passage that human development in the womb is a supernatural process directly performed by God? A knitting frame can't put together a tapestry by itself; nor should we expect the human womb to put a human child together by itself. As a knitting frame needs a knitter so the human womb requires God.

Isn't that the most obvious meaning of the passage?
I have no problem with that description, although I would think most evolutionists would.
 
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Assyrian

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I don't have issues with mustard seeds, geocentrism, flat earth, etc., but you do. Do I ever bring them up? No, it is only the TE that does. I don’t have issues with those things and how they relate to an understanding of God’s Word. It is the TE who makes Jesus either ignorant or a liar, discredits Scripture by making claimsfor it that it itself doesn’t.
The problem is Vossler, you mistake Cooper's interpretation rule for the way scripture is meant to be read. It's his rule that can't handle the words of Jesus without making him out to be wrong. If we point that out to you, it is to show you Cooper doesn't measure up. Is it wrong to judge Cooper's man made rule against the word of our Lord? If his rule fails is it because Jesus is ignorant or a liar?



No, this YEC takes 2 Timothy 2:15 very seriously:
Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who has no need to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth.
Odd that you should bring this up when the issue is YEC mishandling of scripture and double standards in their exegesis.

Interestingly verse 14 tells us: “not to quarrel about words, which does no good, but only ruins the hearers.” I believe that is exactly what TEs continually do, quarrel about words in order to divert attention from their clearly unbiblical position.
YEC preachers, books and websites were arguing against science long before I came on the scene. If they are going to preach bad exegesis and man made rules about the meaning of Hebrew words, is no one to speak out against it? I do try to keep it from being a quarrel, but we have a responsibility to stand for the truth too or the church will be dragged into bondage and deception.

You may claim that you’re looking for ways to show inconsistency in the YEC exegesis, but without an exegesis of your own that is pretty disingenuous.
Why? Just because I am still learning about God's word doesn't mean I can't spot bad exegesis that does not fit what I do know of the way God speaks to us. Jesus taught the disciples how to interpret God's word and understand allegory and figurative by walking with them and speaking to them in parables, sometimes even explaining what they mean. But he never taught them rules like Cooper made up.


Oh contraire, yes it does. 2 Timothy 3:16 states:
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness
I take that very serious.
That verse is about scripture correcting us, not us protecting scripture. It is very strange that you quote that verse when you have been dismissing what scripture shows us about Cooper and his rule.


It’s too bad Jesus wasn’t smart enough not to fall on His face and use the scientific methods like you do. Maybe the second time around he’ll see the error of His ways. What do you think?
It think you are twisting a criticism that shows Cooper's exegetical rule cannot even handle the simplest statement of Jesus, and you pretending it is an attack on Jesus. It show desperation Vossler. You cannot support the quote in you signature, and this is your main argument for a literal interpretation of Genesis.

Without the God of science and the scientific methods of modern man we’d still be in the dark ages of evolution where primitive man couldn’t count, read or write and lived in the trees. Thankfully we’ve evolved beyond the point where the early writers of Scripture were so foolish in their writings and can categorically dismiss their unintelligent ramblings and replace it with whatever fits our fancy.
I showed you why the geocentrist passage are relevant to the the YEC debate, because Christians in the past faced the very same question about science and scripture. Your only response is a rant.


I had to chuckle when I read that. Good friends!
Well, I like them anyway :D

Swans notwithstanding,
Yeah, best not to get into an argument with swans. Look pretty, but they can be vicious.

no matter how you twist and contort the Scriptures to say what you wish them to say they still say evening and morning on a specific day. It just doesn’t get any simpler than that.
And yet Moses could write a Psalm where he goes from the creation and fall to telling us what a day is in God's sight, and in the next two verses use evening and morning figuratively.

Have a look at the story of the labourers in the vineyard. Matt 20:1 "For the kingdom of heaven is like a master of a house who went out early in the morning to hire laborers for his vineyard. 2 After agreeing with the laborers for a denarius a day, he sent them into his vineyard. 3 And going out about the third hour he saw others standing idle in the marketplace, 4 and to them he said, 'You go into the vineyard too, and whatever is right I will give you.' 5 So they went. Going out again about the sixth hour and the ninth hour, he did the same. 6 And about the eleventh hour he went out and found others standing. And he said to them, 'Why do you stand here idle all day?' 7 They said to him, 'Because no one has hired us.' He said to them, 'You go into the vineyard too.' 8 And when evening came, the owner of the vineyard said to his foreman, 'Call the laborers and pay them their wages, beginning with the last, up to the first.' 9 And when those hired about the eleventh hour came, each of them received a denarius. 10 Now when those hired first came, they thought they would receive more, but each of them also received a denarius. 11 And on receiving it they grumbled at the master of the house, 12 saying, 'These last worked only one hour, and you have made them equal to us who have borne the burden of the day and the scorching heat.' 13 But he replied to one of them, 'Friend, I am doing you no wrong. Did you not agree with me for a denarius? 14 Take what belongs to you and go. I choose to give to this last worker as I give to you. 15 Am I not allowed to do what I choose with what belongs to me? Or do you begrudge my generosity?' 16 So the last will be first, and the first last." How simple is that? The day starts out in the morning and we are given time checks hour by hour. What could be more obviously meant as a literal day from the language used? Except it is a parable.

So is this then what you too believe?
It is a prophetic promise with a poetic use of two days and third day. The church saw a resonance in Jesus' resurrection on the third day, but that was not the literal meaning of the passage which talks of Israel being revived in two days and raised up on the third day when they turn to the Lord. That has not had a literal fulfilment. The Rabbinical interpetation may be correct for all I know, but more important for us is their understanding of Hebrew. They seem completely unaware of the YEC rule in Hebrew that prohibits figurative days having numbers.

Of course these are simple words, just like those in Genesis ar.
Are you saying Jesus promise 'Behold I am coming soon' is as simple as the words in Genesis? Because you know these simple words have been misunderstood by literalists from the first century until now, people thinking God's word is speaking to us from a human point of view.


Just like Genesis they too have no need for anything extrabiblical in order to understand, that’s the point I’m making. It is the TE who continually brings in extrabiblical information to assist him/her in their understanding.
Which YEC would never dream of doing when they read about the corners of the earth or the geocentrist passages. Doesn't the hypocrisy of this get to you? You keep accusing TEs of bringing extrabiblical information into their interpretation, and we point out that this is what the church has done throughout the centuries with flat earth and geocentrist passages, and YECs do the same thing today when they interpret these passages. Yet in spite of knowing this, you keep accusing TEs of what you do yourself.

As for the simple words 'I am coming soon', the church has had to keep learning their interpretation was wrong through extrabiblical information, namely Jesus did not come back when they expected, just as the church learned Bishop Ussher's timetable was wrong when we discovered the age of the earth.


Here’s how Easton’s Bible Dictionary defines Adam.
( 1.) Heb. 'Adam, used as the proper name of the first man. The name is derived from a word meaning "to be red," and thus the first man was called Adam because he was formed from the red earth. It is also the generic name of the human race ( Gen 1:26,27; 5:2; 8:21; Deu 8:3). Its equivalents are the Latin homo and the Greek anthropos ( Mat 5:13,16). It denotes also man in opposition to woman ( Gen 3:12; Mat 19:10).
Notice that in Genesis 5:2 the term Adam is used as the generic name for the human race, hence why modern translations no longer use the name and have replaced it with man.
In Gen 5:2 we are told it is a name, so it makes sense to transliterate it as a name, Adam. Genesis 5:1 This is the book of the generations of Adam.In the day that God created man(Adam), he made him in God's likeness. 2 He created them male and female, and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.
It is not that God created a man called Adam and he also use adam as the word for the human race. The context is the creation of Adam, the day Adam was made in his image and likeness. It is in this context, on the 'day' God created Adam, that we are told Adam was really God's name for the human race.


Well if there are no knots and you believe I’ve got knots in my interpretation, don’t you think it is appropriate for you to share your exegetical and unknotted version?
I have shared it with you. I don't try to pretend there were plants before God formed man in the story. In the story the land was barren was because there was no rain and no man to till the ground. A mist rises up and waters the ground and God makes the man from clay and breaths into his nostril. Then God plants a garden and moves the man there. I don't try to pretend God created animals and birds before hand either. Instead, as the story tells us he formed them when he saw Adam was lonely. But none of the animals were suitable as a companion so God formed Eve from Adam's side. Then the story explains some of the allegory. It is about husband and wife being one flesh.

In the story Eve really is deceived by a talking snake who is cursed for deceiving her. The snake is told the woman's seed was going to crush its head and the snake would bite his heel. Just as the literal order of creation in Gen 2 is contradicted by Gen 1, the apparently literal snake in the Genesis story is contradicted by passages throughout the bible that tell us it was Satan who deceived mankind and was defeated by Messiah. Revelation tells us the snake was Satan, but in the story it was a snake. The story is a parable, an allegory.
 
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vossler

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The problem is Vossler, you mistake Cooper's interpretation rule for the way scripture is meant to be read.
So in your opinion Scripture isn’t meant to be read plainly?
Why? Just because I am still learning about God's word doesn't mean I can't spot bad exegesis that does not fit what I do know of the way God speaks to us. Jesus taught the disciples how to interpret God's word and understand allegory and figurative by walking with them and speaking to them in parables, sometimes even explaining what they mean. But he never taught them rules like Cooper made up.
So it’s rules you don’t like? Hmm…that makes sense.

That verse is about scripture correcting us, not us protecting scripture.
If something is breathed out by God and considered profitable shouldn’t it be protected from misinterpretation and heresy?

It think you are twisting a criticism that shows Cooper's exegetical rule cannot even handle the simplest statement of Jesus, and you pretending it is an attack on Jesus.
Please just answer this then, when Jesus said that the mustard seed was the smallest seed was He:
  • Ignorant of the poppy
  • Lying
  • Talking to a people that knew the mustard seed as the smallest seed.
There are no other options. Which is it?
I showed you why the geocentrist passage are relevant to the YEC debate, because Christians in the past faced the very same question about science and scripture. Your only response is a rant.
No this wasn’t a rant, it was the logical conclusion of a modern means of interpreting the motivations of an ancient people and their writings.

How simple is that? The day starts out in the morning and we are given time checks hour by hour. What could be more obviously meant as a literal day from the language used? Except it is a parable.
So because it is a parable those references to third, sixth, ninth, eleventh, one, day etc. in Matt 20 are all figurative/allegorical and really mean something entirely different? Please do share what it is they do mean, I’m really interested to hear this.

The Rabbinical interpretation may be correct for all I know, but more important for us is their understanding of Hebrew. They seem completely unaware of the YEC rule in Hebrew that prohibits figurative days having numbers.
So you’re saying that Hebrew scholars and Rabbi’s have no issues with this?

Which YEC would never dream of doing when they read about the corners of the earth or the geocentrist passages. Doesn't the hypocrisy of this get to you? You keep accusing TEs of bringing extrabiblical information into their interpretation, and we point out that this is what the church has done throughout the centuries with flat earth and geocentrist passages, and YECs do the same thing today when they interpret these passages. Yet in spite of knowing this, you keep accusing TEs of what you do yourself.
When I refer to extra-biblical information in order to understand Scripture, I’m not talking about anything that changes the plain and simple meaning of what is being said. Whether or not the earth is flat or round, revolves around the sun or not plays no meaningful role in how any of those Scriptures you just love to cite are interpreted. The basic meaning and message of the verses in question never changes. For example; 1 Samuel 2:8:

He raises up the poor from the dust;
he lifts the needy from the ash heap
to make them sit with princes
and inherit a seat of honor.
For the pillars of the earth are the LORD's,
and on them he has set the world.


The meaning of pillars here may be ambiguous to you without science to tell you what they mean, it isn’t for me. Anyone with a basic teaching of literature can distinguish it’s meaning without the use of science. Now even if one were to use science to assist in our interpretation, it really doesn’t matter, because the meaning doesn’t change. God’s all encompassing power and control is the point here, not the pillars.

That can’t be said for how the evolutionist completely changes the plain meaning of Genesis. Remember, for the YEC extra-biblical information is only a tool to assist and enlighten understanding, not a hatchet that chops Scriptures plain meaning into an indiscernible new contrary meaning. Biblical tools are wonderful but I don’t think most scholars would think it prudent to use them in this manner.

As for the simple words 'I am coming soon', the church has had to keep learning their interpretation was wrong through extrabiblical information, namely Jesus did not come back when they expected, just as the church learned Bishop Ussher's timetable was wrong when we discovered the age of the earth.
The extra-biblical information that told the church He wasn’t coming soon was what, the fact He wasn’t here yet? Is that you extra-biblical information or is there something else I’m missing?

In Gen 5:2 we are told it is a name, so it makes sense to transliterate it as a name, Adam. Genesis 5:1This is the book of the generations of Adam.In the day that God created man(Adam), he made him in God's likeness. 2 He created them male and female, and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.
It is not that God created a man called Adam and he also use adam as the word for the human race. The context is the creation of Adam, the day Adam was made in his image and likeness. It is in this context, on the 'day' God created Adam, that we are told Adam was really God's name for the human race.
Correct me if I’m wrong but I’m under the impression that you don’t believe in an actual Adam, first man God created by divine fiat, right? If so, this is interpretation is quite interesting. How did you come about that interpretation? Does this come from some sort of TE commentary or something similar?
I have shared it with you. I don't try to pretend there were plants before God formed man in the story. In the story the land was barren was because there was no rain and no man to till the ground. A mist rises up and waters the ground and God makes the man from clay and breaths into his nostril. Then God plants a garden and moves the man there. I don't try to pretend God created animals and birds before hand either. Instead, as the story tells us he formed them when he saw Adam was lonely. But none of the animals were suitable as a companion so God formed Eve from Adam's side. Then the story explains some of the allegory. It is about husband and wife being one flesh.
Given that you believe none of what you just stated actually happened, the meaning of this story is exactly what? Tell me how we are to apply this story to our lives. Why wouldn’t God tell us the real story and instead give us an allegory that looks and smells historical? What purpose does that serve? Also, how do you support that this isn’t historical given that Adam is referred to many times as a historical figure?
 
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shernren

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I can't speak for other creationists, but that's exactly what I'm saying. :D
The creation event itself is not scientific.

So in other words, there is no scientific difference between a recently and rapidly created earth, which has been recently globally deluged, and in which all life-forms have been created separately with immense biological discontinuities ...

and an old, gradually formed earth in a universe three times its age, which has never been globally deluged in its history, and in which all life-forms have descended from an ancestral life-form with all biological discontinuities being derived instead of intrinsic?

Are you saying that there would be no possible way for science to tell between the two?

I have no problem with that description, although I would think most evolutionists would.

And yet if your wife ever became pregnant, you wouldn't consider foregoing medical advice throughout the pregnancy. According to a description you agree with, conception and embryonic development are supernatural processes. Why would you trust a doctor to understand, and to some extent direct, a miracle?
 
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shernren

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The basic meaning and message of the verses in question never changes. For example; 1 Samuel 2:8:

He raises up the poor from the dust;
he lifts the needy from the ash heap
to make them sit with princes
and inherit a seat of honor.
For the pillars of the earth are the LORD's,
and on them he has set the world.

The meaning of pillars here may be ambiguous to you without science to tell you what they mean, it isn’t for me. Anyone with a basic teaching of literature can distinguish it’s meaning without the use of science. Now even if one were to use science to assist in our interpretation, it really doesn’t matter, because the meaning doesn’t change. God’s all encompassing power and control is the point here, not the pillars.

Mind you, in this passage God's power is directly predicated upon His act of setting the world on pillars ("... and inherit a seat of honor. / For the pillars of the earth are the LORD's ... "), so that what these pillars are and what God's act of setting the earth on pillars is is hardly inconsequential! But I should not belabor the point. More importantly, what is different between your saying that and our saying:

"Now even if one were to use science to assist in our interpretation, it really doesn't matter, because the meaning doesn't change. God's all-encompassing power and control is the point of Genesis 1, not how long and in what order He made things."

Is that not exactly analogous to the argument that you made? Where it is inconvenient, you shove the details under the carpet and pick the overarching themes of a narrative as the "plain meaning" of the passage (even a passage where God's claim to power rests precisely on His setting the earth on pillars!) and then say that a scientific interpretation of a passage does not change its meaning. But how is that any different from what we TEs do with Genesis 1? After all, you allow yourself to say that setting the pillars of the earth may not have actually happened, and that God's power and control are the main point of 1 Samuel 2:8. We are saying that the historicity of days and the order of creation may not actually reflect real historical events, and that God's power and control are the main point of Genesis 1.

All we are doing is abstracting beyond the level of petty detail - just the same way you do when the science is inconvenient - and reading a passage in terms of what it communicates as its overarching theme. Is that so wrong? Are not the themes that we ascribe to the early chapters of Genesis indeed found in those chapters? We have not read anything into the text that was never in the text to begin with, even if we quibble over particulars.
 
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vossler

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So in other words, there is no scientific difference between a recently and rapidly created earth, which has been recently globally deluged, and in which all life-forms have been created separately with immense biological discontinuities ...

and an old, gradually formed earth in a universe three times its age, which has never been globally deluged in its history, and in which all life-forms have descended from an ancestral life-form with all biological discontinuities being derived instead of intrinsic?
I'm saying science will never know that actual age of the earth because it was created ex nihlo by God. How could science ever accurately measure that?
And yet if your wife ever became pregnant, you wouldn't consider foregoing medical advice throughout the pregnancy. According to a description you agree with, conception and embryonic development are supernatural processes. Why would you trust a doctor to understand, and to some extent direct, a miracle?
Why not? I don't ask him to understand the miracle, just to assist in the process of the miracle. He's really like my wife and just along for the ride because he doesn't contribute much of anything, mostly reassurance. He's primarily there in case something goes wrong and for that he collects a big paycheck, not a bad gig. :)
 
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shernren

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I'm saying science will never know that actual age of the earth because it was created ex nihlo by God. How could science ever accurately measure that?

You're keen to drill the issue down to the age of the earth? Can do. Now, AiG supposes itself to have plenty of scientific "evidence" that tells them that the earth is young. What does that "evidence" mean to you? Does it not indicate that between an old earth and a young earth, science can tell the difference?
 
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