Greek particle question

[jbarcher]

http://www.christian-thinktank.com/fem09.html

In that article, where it gets to "Now, let's consider I Cor 14.33-36:" about 50% down, Miller mentions "Immediately after verse 35, the first word in verse 36 is a single letter particle that is translated "What?!" in the KJV and ASV. This word in most contexts is translated as 'or' or 'rather', but these are always in series, like "either...or" or "this or that or that..."."

Now, I would plead with you guys to avoid getting into a debate about the backdrop of my question, well, at least after I get my question answered.

What is that single letter particle? Is it n? (eta, if I remember that right)

 

[LamorakDesGalis]

Yes, it is an eta with a smooth breathing mark, typically translated as "or."

In contrast to the KJV and ASV, the updated versions of NKJV and NRSV translate the article as "or."


Lamorak Des Galis

 

[filosofer]

And it is paralleled later in the verse with another eta, so both in some translations it is considered two questions ("[this is the way it is]... Or from you the word of God has gone out? Or unto you only has it come?").

In one sense the KJV isn't translating that particle per se, rather it is attempting to signify the astonishment that Paul expresses: "What from you the word of God has gone out?" This is not a bad translation because it shows the contrast with what preceded, but it is not an exact word-for-word translation at this point.

 

[jbarcher]

Thanks.