I indicated that no where is the scapegoat, or associated Greek term, spelled out in the NT. The New Testament spells out a number of fulfilments of the type. Some have things that are a little surprising to us. If the New Testament gives the fulfillment, we can without a doubt believe that fulfillment.
If it does not then we can predict from the type. But that does not have the same certainty as a New Testament passage. So for instance, when Paul references Christ our Passover Lamb in I Corinthians 5, it is a plain statement that Jesus fulfilled the OT type of the lamb during Passover.
This is a simple example that we both agree on. But it illustrates the point. If something is spelled out, we know it. If it is not, we may infer. But we cannot say our inferences are on the same level of certainty as Scripture.
I think what we can agree on here is that the annual festivals are shadows and prophetic in nature. What you have shown above in this post and I agree also, that in the NT the feasts that have been fulfilled are clearly explianed in the NT as to what these fulfillments refer to.
On the same token however it can be argued that there is indeed silence as to the antitypical meanings in relation to some of the feasts that have not yet been fulfilled. The day of atonement being a good example here as it has not yet had it's fulfillment so there not direct scripture passages showing fulfillment.
This however does not mean one cannot come to an understanding of Prophecy by a careful study of the word of God through his Spirit. The books of Daniel and Revelations as well as other passages in both the Old and New Testament highlight possible interpretations as to what the Shadows are pointing to.
For me personally, I believe there is merit to the scapegoat in Leviticus 16 representing the punishment of Satan at the 2nd coming. In the NT Satan is shown to receive similar punishment to the scapegoat in Leviticus 16 as described in the book of Revelations where he and he will be cast into the bottomless pit for 1000 years.
Even looking at the scriptures in relation to the sheep and the goats, the scriptures indicate that the
live goats can have an application to the wicked in the NT.
Notice in..
LEVITICUS 16:20-22: And when he hath made an end of reconciling the holy place, and the tabernacle of the congregation, and the altar, he shall bring the live goat: And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness. And the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities unto a land not inhabited: and he shall let go the goat in the wilderness.
After the cleansing of the Sanctuary all the sins of God's people are transferred to the goat by the High Priest. We are guilty of sin but Christ bore our sin when we accept him as Savious and seek his forgiveness through repentance and faith in his promises. The instigator of all sin however is Satan.
After the
scapegoat/azazel was sent into the wilderness, both the high priest and the fit man (before he returned to the camp) had to wash themselves and their clothes (Leviticus 16:23-26). The “fit man” here could represent the angel in Revelation 20:1-3 who will lay hold of the dragon (Satan) and seal him in the bottomless pit.
In examining the transferal of sin to the scapegoat, it is significant to note that the goat was not treated as all other animal sacrifices were — slain as atonement for sin. A sacrifice was valid as an atonement for transgressions
only as it died, as there was spilled blood. Thus, Jesus was "set forth to be a propitiation [for us]
by his blood (
Rom. 3:25, NKJV). It is "through his blood" that we have redemption (
Eph. 1:7).
Preserving the goat alive tells that Azazel had another significance.
Because shed blood was necessary for a sin offering, in what way could an animal kept alive be considered such an offering?
In the case of the scapegoat, it was the high priest, who placed the sins on the goat. A reason for this is that the peoples sins had already been cared for by the sacrifice of the Lord's goat. Now the goat "for Azazel" had its part to play, one quite different from the Lord's goat.
In Leviticus (24:13,14). A young man blasphemed God and so was sentenced to be taken outside the camp and stoned to death. Before the stoning, witnesses to his words laid their hands on his head.
Two suggestions have been made as to the significance of this act. One, they were making solemn testimony that they had indeed heard his blasphemies and that he therefore merited his fate. Second, they were transferring back to him any guilt that had "rubbed off" on them by hearing him.
Both of these suggestions have merit. Christ, as no other, has been witness to the rebellion of Satan and can attest that he richly deserves his fate. And the sins Satan caused others to commit will be laid back upon him so that he will be required to bear the penalty for those sins. This is not to make him a propitiation for the sins. This also demonstrated in the NT in the book of Revelation.
In one case only, was the transfer of sin to the scapegoat carried out and that was on the Day of Atonement. This was done by the high priest as he lay his hands upon the animal and confessed all the sins of God's people after the cleansing of the Sanctuary. The purpose was to remove all the Sins of God's people from the Sanctuary and the presence of God.
This was done after the atonement for sin had been completed. Unlike all other cases following such transfer, the goat was not slain but kept alive. Rather, it was to be sent away into the wilderness by the hands of a strong man who was to release the goat in the wilderness (
Lev. 16:21-22).
After the high priest finished his work of cleansing the sanctuary and making atonement and emerged from the sanctuary, the rituals involving the scapegoat were performed. When Christ, our Great High Priest, ends His work in the heavenly sanctuary (
Dan. 12:1; Heb. 8-10), at the end of the antitypical Day of Atonement, it is not unreasonable to think he places upon Satan responsibility for the sins he has caused God's people to perform.
Therefore, there is merit that the antitypical of the scapegoat being taken into the wilderness, "the Devil and Satan ... is bound for a thousand years; and cast... into the bottomless pit" (
Rev. 20:2,
3).
Well possibly, said more then I should have here. I agree that Prophecy unfulfilled is prophecy unfulfilled and passages may be unclear and open to interpretation, but the reason why prophecy is given is because it is to be revealed to God's people who seek him by his Spirit.
Thanks for sharing.
