Now you’re saying the exact opposite of what you said just earlier today. Like 4 posts earlier you were saying that ADAM WAS INCAPABLE OF SIN. Now all the sudden you’ve thrown that argument out the window because I squashed that it by pointing out the fact that God gave consequences for disobeying His commandment not to eat from the tree of knowledge. You don’t give someone consequences for doing something THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR THEM TO DO.
No I’m not saying the opposite.
What is going on with your twisting of my words. I will say it again.
1) Adam had no sin.
2) Adam was incapable of sin.
3) Sin was introduced to him.
4) Satan introduced sin to Adam through eating from the Tree of the Knowledge of good and evil.
5) Eating from that tree was the first introduction of sin to man. Other than that, sin did not exist for Adam
Now, there is no ambiguity in what I’m saying.
You don’t give someone consequences for doing something THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR THEM TO DO.
It was not impossible for Adam to be convinced to disobey God and eat from the wrong tree. God gave consequences for Adam’s wrong choice.
The issue is Adam would have remained without sin, without the knowledge of sin if he had never heard of sin. He could not have decided on his own to sin because he did not know what sin was. It was not until Satan convinced Eve to disobey God, that Adam learned about sin. That’s why God said, who told thee thou was naked, Genesis 3:11 KJV.
Adam and Eve had no knowledge of good and evil, until someone told them - Satan.
I have been trying to tell you that Adam did not have sin in him until he disobeyed God and ate from the tree. Eating from this tree CHANGED his nature, which he did not have at first, and after disobeying, the consequences became evil, sin, suffering, sickness, and death. This is why God told Adam, who had not known sin, to not eat from this tree, because that would result in his inheriting a sinful nature, which would break his connection to God’s Spirit - fallen man.
As for
Psalms 82:6-7 I don’t know what it means. It’s too ambiguous to make any sort of interpretation. You can’t just throw out any interpretation that suits you without evidence to support it.
Well, you have said you don’t know what the scripture means, but you argue as if you do know. This is impossible.
The word “he” is referring to David calling these people gods to whom the word of God came to. How does that equate to “them” being Adam? David wasn’t referring to Adam & Eve he was referring to mankind in general. Hence the term “all of you”.
“I said, “You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High.”
Psalms 82:6 NASB1995
Who is “all of you” before the fall? Adam & Eve? No it’s a reference to all mankind because you don’t use the term “all of you” in reference to two people.
All of you refers to all mankind like you said. The question is what is the scripture speaking about?
It does no good to give you all the relating scriptures because you won’t read them. You admit you don’t know, and I suspect don’t want to know.
You seem to want to act like you know! Big difference!