How is the Aristotelian law of causality (not mere statement implication) not logical?
To be logical is to be of or pertaining to logic. Aristotle's laws of causality pertain to physical reality.
Failure to meet the burden of proof is never determined by atheists' ever-increasing level of personal incredulity.
Ok, I'm not arguing that with you here.
Subjectivism is non-dominant in logic.
More rambling from you.
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