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Genesis
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shernren
you are not reading this.
- Feb 17, 2005
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Why shouldn't we? After all, Scripture is full of songs. Why, Psalm 137 was even the UK #1 single in 1978.
My question remains. Why can't we treat Genesis like a song? Songs are powerful. Songs often express eternal truths.
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Your correct in a way
Your wrong with No.1.
No. 2. it either is or it isn't it cannot be both. Jesus used them in the 4 Gospels of the NT. This does not mean that they are used in everycase, everywhere in the Bible. Many people take it literally and with good reason, it is clear in its description. Just because science disagrees does not make the discription innacurate.
No.3. 1 day is apparently highly symbolic to. Especially when it includes the descriptive "morning and evening the 1st, 2nd, 3rd etc day."
There is no need to be sorry especially when you are not wrong.
The earliest extant version of the entire Bible is written in Koine Greek. It is called the Septuagint, because 70 men wrote it from the original texts they had. These original texts were written in Aramaic not Hebrew, a common mistake but a mistake nonetheless. Aramaic was the Lingua Franca of the ancient world (middle east) before Alexander the Great's campaigns to creat an empire pushed koine Greek into the role of Lingua Franca.
You are also correct that Jesus was not around yet in human form. The occurances of Jesus in the OT have been called a theophany which means an appearance of God to man. In many cases it is not clear what part of the Triune it is that is appearing. Many believe that in the OT God was very clear. This is because the people needed very clear instructions as they were prone to going astray. Thus the 10 Commandments, You shall not have any other God but me!etc. The first 5 books of the Bible were written by Moses who because of his position in Egyptian societ would have been very well educated and travelled. He would have known quite well what a day is.
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Moses did write songs:
Deut 31:22 "Moses therefore wrote this song the same day, and taught it the children of Israel."
Deut 31:22 "Moses therefore wrote this song the same day, and taught it the children of Israel."
why not take the whole bible literally? what about revelation?
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Assyrian
Basically pulling an Obama (Thanks Calminian!)
The Pharisees certainly thought the OT law was clear and literal. The NT has a rather different approach.
Heb 10:1 For since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities.
Col 2:16 Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath.
17 These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ.
The Pharisees had real problems with Jesus' rejection of their literal interpretation of the Sabbath Command
All the more reason to pay attention to what Moses says in Psalm 90 the creation psalm with a nonliteral understanding of God's days and the YEC favourites 'evening' and 'morning'.
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rmwilliamsll
avid reader
These original texts were written in Aramaic not Hebrew, a common mistake but a mistake nonetheless. Aramaic was the Lingua Franca of the ancient world (middle east) before Alexander the Great's campaigns to creat an empire pushed koine Greek into the role of Lingua Franca.
what is your evidence that Genesis (or the OT) was original written in Aramaic?
or reference scholarship that we can read.
tia.
what is your evidence that Genesis (or the OT) was original written in Aramaic?
or reference scholarship that we can read.
tia.
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