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Where does the law forgive sin?True that is how the Gospel works. Forgiveness of sins
Not under the condemnation of the LAW -- while at the same time the LAW is written on the heart of the Christian who then "establishes the LAW" Rom 3:31 by walking in the Spirit.
Thus it is a sin even for the saints of the NT 'to take God's name in vain" Ex 20:7
Rev 14:12 "the saints KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus"
1 Cor 7:19 "what matters is keeping the Commandments of God"
1 John 5:2-3 "this IS the Love of God that we KEEP His commandments"
Eph 6:2 "Honor your father and mother..for this is the first commandment WITH a promise" in that still valid TEN Commandment unit of LAW.
It is not about "earning our way to heaven" it is about "a changed life" -- "By their fruits you shall know them" Matthew 7
Yes God's word isn't true.That is not true logically. I am not under the condemnation of the laws of my state as a criminal - but that does not mean that by that reason alone -- I can never be condemned in the future as a criminal.
Yes God's word isn't true.
Where does the law forgive sin?
BobRyan said: ↑
1. To be justified by law does not mean that you are a sinner who found a way to stop sinning. It means you had to have never sinned at all.
What are we justified by?
What I responded to is:That is not true logically. I am not under the condemnation of the laws of my state as a criminal - but that does not mean that by that reason alone -- I can never be condemned in the future as a criminal.
Matthew 18 - Christ teaches the law of "Forgiveness revoked" just as we see in in Ezek 18.
And in Romans 11 - again 'Forgiveness revoked".
In Gal 5:4 "you have been severed from Christ... you have fallen from grace"
1 Cor 6 Paul says "be not deceived" when instructing the saints in the church - about the deeds of those who will not be in heaven.
But if Christians are not under the condemnation of the law, they cannot be guilty unto death for their shortcomings concerning that law
What I responded to is:
That is not true logically. I am not under the condemnation of the laws of my state as a criminal - but that does not mean that by that reason alone -- I can never be condemned in the future as a criminal.
The problem is your placing others under the condemnation of the law
But the relationship of the "save" is the NEW Covenant and so then "LAW of God written on heart and mind"
Rom 3:31 "do we then make void the law of God by our faith? God forbid! In fact we establish the Law"
Heb 8:6-12 "I will write My LAW on their heart and mind"
1 John 3:4 'Sin IS transgression of the LAW" even after the cross.
1 Cor 7:19 "what matters is KEEPING the Commandments of God"
Rev 14:12 "the saints KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus"
1 John 5:2-3 "this IS the Love of God - that we KEEP His Commandments"
Eph 6:2 "Honor your father and mother for this is the first Commandment With a promise" in that still valid - distinct unit of TEN
irrefutable.
(which means no matter how many times these texts are assailed they will stand all the opposition unmoved)
The problem is your placing others under the condemnation of the law you, yourself aren't compliant with. What is the truth? Why doesn't it apply to everyone equally? Why is it that others are under condemnation while you aren't by the same law for the same reason - noncompliance? Any degree of non compliance is still noncompliance.
One of the problems you present using the Bible to tear down others is a major reason many don't come to Jesus. What you offer has no hope. This is demonstrated very well by coming in the front door and departing from the back door in haste.The point remains - that I did not write the Bible... I read it.
One of the problems you present using the Bible to tear down others .
The Bible is the inspired, inerrant, infallible word of God.
Now, based upon your belief of what the NT writers meant when they used the phrase “under the law”, what is Paul revealing in these two verses in Galatians specifically regarding Christ and the phrase, “under the law”?
And please keep in mind that the concepts of adoption and redemption are very much a part of what Paul is saying.
Rom 3:19-20 presents the fact that all mankind are sinners (Rom 3:23) and all condemned under the Law of God (the law that defines what sin is 1 John 3:4 "sin IS transgression of the law") - .
This statement requires some clarification and revision. It's true the penalty for disobedience is death in both Covenants. However, in the OT, it meant physical death only (cut off from the people) as part of the curses of the law in Deut. 28-29.We are under that same O.C. condemnation as all mankind O.T. or N.T. until we accept the Gospel New Covenant (Jer 31:31-34) at which point that same law is now written on the heart.
What does this verse say?Hi all,
If I could share some of my understanding of the Law and Commandments of God, there are several important factors that often prevent a correct understanding of certain verses, and therefore, the Law and Commandments themselves.
The first problem is that we (everyone who reads the Bible) apply our own preconceived understanding of scripture based on what we've been taught throughout our lives, or simply assumed to be true. We even do this with individual words that we assume we understand perfectly. Example,
The Greek text of Rom: 2:12 does not use the phrase “under the law”, it says “sinned in law”.
Rom. 3:19 also says, “in the law” not under the law.
1 Cor. 9:20 uses the phrase “under law” three times. The next verse does not, rather, it says, “in law of Christ.”
Gal. 3:23; 4:4-5; 5:18 – all use the term “under (the) law.”
And people often just assume they know what the phrase, "under the law" means and how the NT writers understood it. But these assumptions are false.
Speaking of Christ, the following verses state,
But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5 so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons (Gal. 4:4–5; NASB).
Now, based upon your belief of what the NT writers meant when they used the phrase “under the law”, what is Paul revealing in these two verses in Galatians specifically regarding Christ and the phrase, “under the law”?
And please keep in mind that the concepts of adoption and redemption are very much a part of what Paul is saying.
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