Bootstrap
Regular Member
In English, 'fornication' clearly means sex between people who are not married, though the definition of sex is not clear. There was at least one court case where the wife was held not to have committed adultery because she had lesbian sex, and there was no penetration involving a penis. So there's some fuzziness here, but the word is relatively well defined, and you can find the definition in a dictionary.
The words for adultery in English or in Greek are also well-defined, except for imprecision in defining exactly when you are actually having sex.
The Greek term porneia, however, is fuzzier. It clearly includes prostitution and certainly temple prostitution, but it also involves other forms of sexual immorality. In older bibles it was generally translated 'fornication', but I haven't yet seen anything that convinces me that it covered premarital sex, and fornication clearly does. Perhaps because of this, it is often translated 'sexual immorality', which nicely captures some of the ambiguity of the term, it doesn't specify just exactly what it is that is sexually immoral. (My source for this is BDAG, but you kind of need to know Greek to use this lexicon.)
So suppose you want to prove that butterfly kisses are wrong. It's not enough to point to a lot of verses that say God doesn't like porneia, you have to demonstrate that butterfly kisses would have fallen into the category of porneia. And so far, I've found that maddeningly difficult beyond going to prostitutes and committing adultery. I'm sure the New Testament writers would have put other things into that category, but in the lexicons, I can't see clear lines showing what goes into that category and what does not, and when I look at the texts, it doesn't seem to be the fault of the lexicons.
I don't know Hebrew, maybe someone out there does and can comment.
Jonathan
The words for adultery in English or in Greek are also well-defined, except for imprecision in defining exactly when you are actually having sex.
The Greek term porneia, however, is fuzzier. It clearly includes prostitution and certainly temple prostitution, but it also involves other forms of sexual immorality. In older bibles it was generally translated 'fornication', but I haven't yet seen anything that convinces me that it covered premarital sex, and fornication clearly does. Perhaps because of this, it is often translated 'sexual immorality', which nicely captures some of the ambiguity of the term, it doesn't specify just exactly what it is that is sexually immoral. (My source for this is BDAG, but you kind of need to know Greek to use this lexicon.)
So suppose you want to prove that butterfly kisses are wrong. It's not enough to point to a lot of verses that say God doesn't like porneia, you have to demonstrate that butterfly kisses would have fallen into the category of porneia. And so far, I've found that maddeningly difficult beyond going to prostitutes and committing adultery. I'm sure the New Testament writers would have put other things into that category, but in the lexicons, I can't see clear lines showing what goes into that category and what does not, and when I look at the texts, it doesn't seem to be the fault of the lexicons.
I don't know Hebrew, maybe someone out there does and can comment.
Jonathan
Upvote
0
