Wiccan_Child
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- Mar 21, 2005
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On the contrary, David left to live with Saul etc before being offered Mereb's and Michal's hands in marraige. Indeed, he only went to live there after his and Jonathan's souls were bound, which sounds an awfully lot like Biblical marriage.
Sorry but the 1 Samuel passage isnt about a man and a woman and the Genesis passage specifically is, your thinking is fundamentally flawed. Genesis 2 says God created woman for man to be united as man and wife, Jonathan was neither a woman nor a wife, so the passage doesnt mirror Genesis 2. In fact David then married Michal so this is the bit that mirrors Genesis 2.
I never said they had sex, nor that the Bible explicitly mentions them having sex. But given the nature of their relationship, it seem strange for a married couple to not have sex at some point. Moreover, we are told David slept with Bathsheba (2 Samuel 11:4) because it is integral to the plot: she bears, among others, King Solomon. Since a gay couple cannot conceive, there is no need to mention sex.But you are seeing sex and I am not, nor does it say David slept with Jonathan whereas we know when he sleeps with Bethsheba it says so. So I should think this is self-explanatory and not what you think..
As I've said before, I do not believe the Bible to be true. If I believed the Bible depicts David and Jonathan to be heterosexual pals, I'd say that instead.But marriage was man and woman, as defined in Genesis 2 and as described in every Biblical instance. What you are doing is ignoring what the Bible says throughout to try and justify what you would like to see.
I think there are two reasons the Bible 'defines' marriage as between a man and a woman. First, it's the same reason incest is defined as a-okay in early Genesis chapters: there simply weren't enough humans to sustain a viable population if people were going to go off and not have kids. Second, heterosexuality is by far more common than homosexuality, so it makes sense to talk about marriage and so on from the perspective of the heterosexual. When a person makes the assumption that a man's spouse is female, that person is not automatically declaring homosexuality an abomination: it's just the logical assumption to make. Likewise, when Jesus spoke about adultery, he spoke of lusting after a woman. Does that mean he condones women (and, indeed, men) lusting after men?
But Jesus is typically seen as God made manifest; David was a mere mortal. Are you declaring David the messiah?So what, the disciples loved Jesus and Jesus loved the disciples. Love isnt sex. When the writer of Samuel describes sex he writes that David found the body of a woman attractive and slept with her.
Which mirrors what Jesus taught , to love Him more than anyone.
It's not so much that pro-gay Christians ignore what the Bible says, but rather the disagree with the translations and interpretations used by their anti-gay counterparts. That is, whereas some Christians see Leviticus 18:22, Romans 1, etc, as condemnations of homosexuality, others see it as something else entirely.But infact I think suggesting they were gay lovers is a sign of massive disbelief and denial of the truth, and why the gay and lesbian thinking is such disbelief, because it makes assumptions on the back of ignoring what the Bible says marriage is, what love is, and the condemnations of same-sex unions.
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