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Ex nihilo event in Isaiah 54:16 ".. I have created the waster to destroy" ?

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Xaero

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"Behold, I have created the smith that bloweth the coals in the fire, and that bringeth forth an instrument for his work; and I have created the waster to destroy."


I've raised this point several times ago without getting a reply from a YEC, now i directly demand an answer:
Is Isa 54:16 describing an ex nihilo creation event? Or is it a creation through natural processes, that means the blacksmith and waster were born by woman raised by parents/society and got her craftsmanship through learning (also a normal natural process)?


How do YECs interpret this verse? (also remember that the hebrew word 'bara' is used for "created".)
 

busterdog

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Since the whole statement is metaphorical, what difference does it make?

Because metaphors point to specific events or persons. They don't point to inchoate concepts. The question here is what is in view.

The context is speaking to Israel. "Sing thou O Barren one."

Isa 54:14
In righteousness shalt thou be established: thou shalt be far from oppression; for thou shalt not fear: and from terror; for it shall not come near thee.


Isa 54:15

Behold, they shall surely gather together, [but] not by me: whosoever shall gather together against thee shall fall for thy sake.

Isa 54:16
Behold, I have created the smith that bloweth the coals in the fire, and that bringeth forth an instrument for his work; and I have created the waster to destroy.


Isa 54:17
No weapon that is formed against thee shall prosper; and every tongue [that] shall rise against thee in judgment thou shalt condemn. This [is] the heritage of the servants of the LORD, and their righteousness [is] of me, saith the LORD.

My first response is to say that I don't see the ex nihilo event to be immediately in view. I see a question not of creation of the world in that sense. I see the creation of the persecutors of Israel, from whom they will be saved.

So, if I try to get inside of your reasoning, it would appear to be a question of whether God generally uses long term processes to bring his purposes into being. So, most events of divine intervention would appear to be creation "ex nihilo." I think that is the point. Then the question becomes, if this is true for national Israel, how do we know that it is not true for Gen. 1? Correct?

In some ways, this is like the argument that if God uses metaphors for the kingdom of God, how do we know that "yom" is not a metaphor? We dealt with that question by looking specifically at the language of Gen. 1 and came away with several different opinions and pretty much no agreement on whether there was even a "surface text".

Let's take another example. Jesus came as a baby and grew to the point where he was able to begin his formal ministry at about 30 or so. Why it was that God would need to be born is somewhat mysterious.

Lets take the examples of the cleansing of the leper, the raising of Lazarus and giving sight to the blind. Generally, when God speaks, it is done ex nihilo. I am not seeing the same long term processes in many events. So, if we use the same logic (that is, the logic by which one argues, if you see one metaphor in scripture, everything could be a metaphor), we can also say that if God speaks and brings into being ex nihilo in a literal sense and without a metaphorical reference, then he must also have been doing it in Gen. 1 and everywhere else from Genesis to Maps.

That doesn't quite get us to the answer, though.

One difference is that the waster is not St. Waster, one of the good angels or really anything good. It is apparent that God's will is done through satan even at times. Babylon, which was scourged for ungodliness but was on occasion the servent of God. It was also punished for what it did to Israel, even tough God's purposes were served by its actions.

The long term processes are our processes, the human processes, which God sometimes uses. There is an authority on earth and apparently God does not presume to take back that grant of authority.

Now God has said that he will redeem Israel. (Understanding some will reject that proposal.) Romans 11 says God is not done with Israel. Well, what does God say about the slow, long term plan for dealing with Israel, the evolution of Israel if you will?

Luk 13:34 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen [doth gather] her brood under [her] wings, and ye would not!

God weeps about it.

Doesn't sound like the perfect creation of Gen. 1-3 to me.

And God would have been weeping to see His creation if natural selection, that is death, was what was required to make it "good" in Gen. 1 and 2.

That being said, God does use evolution. THis is your example. How is it that we exclude such evolution in the places where YEC stakes its claim? With an argument that is probably not an easy one. As noted, the argument for TE in Gen. 1 is no easier.
 
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shernren

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Now God has said that he will redeem Israel. (Understanding some will reject that proposal.) Romans 11 says God is not done with Israel. Well, what does God say about the slow, long term plan for dealing with Israel, the evolution of Israel if you will?

Luk 13:34 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen [doth gather] her brood under [her] wings, and ye would not!

God weeps about it.

Doesn't sound like the perfect creation of Gen. 1-3 to me.

And God would have been weeping to see His creation if natural selection, that is death, was what was required to make it "good" in Gen. 1 and 2.

That being said, God does use evolution. THis is your example. How is it that we exclude such evolution in the places where YEC stakes its claim? With an argument that is probably not an easy one. As noted, the argument for TE in Gen. 1 is no easier.

Well, I don't see God weeping in Job 39. God wept over Israel's rebellion from God's plan. Is evolution a rebellion against God's plan? How do you know?
 
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Deamiter

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busterdog -- I'll have to read that post a few times to try to figure out what you're saying (not that you've put it badly but it's pretty deep). However, I do have a couple questions. You said that God's creation in Gen 1-3 is perfect. What would give you that idea? Also, you cite a verse that talks about the Israelites stoning prophets sent as messengers from God and conclude that because God is pained by the occurance, God must abhor ALL physical death. I suggest that this leap of logic is utterly unfounded and your interpretation of the passage as evidence for physical death being evil is simply a case of you reading your assumption that death is bad into an unrelated passage. This verse in no way talks about death in general but the murder of God's messengers and cannot be used as evidence that the God of the Bible views all death as a corruption of his good (or perfect?) creation.
 
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Tinker Grey

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Gen 3:21 indicates that God himself clothed Adam and Eve in skins.

Since the word "made" is not bara (it is asah), it would seem that God killed something to get those skins. (In fact, I've had teachers indicate that God was showing Adam and Eve how to make sacrifices.)

The fact that he does this and it is recorded without comment leads one to question whether physical death is that important.
 
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busterdog

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busterdog

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busterdog -- I'll have to read that post a few times to try to figure out what you're saying (not that you've put it badly but it's pretty deep). However, I do have a couple questions. You said that God's creation in Gen 1-3 is perfect. What would give you that idea? Also, you cite a verse that talks about the Israelites stoning prophets sent as messengers from God and conclude that because God is pained by the occurance, God must abhor ALL physical death. I suggest that this leap of logic is utterly unfounded and your interpretation of the passage as evidence for physical death being evil is simply a case of you reading your assumption that death is bad into an unrelated passage. This verse in no way talks about death in general but the murder of God's messengers and cannot be used as evidence that the God of the Bible views all death as a corruption of his good (or perfect?) creation.

If you have a look in the amplified Bible regarding the fruit of the tree of good and evil, we are talking about the knowledge of blessing and calamity -- death being generally rather calamitous.

Genesis 2:9 (Amplified Bible) 9And out of the ground the Lord God made to grow every tree that is pleasant to the sight or to be desired--good (suitable, pleasant) for food; the tree of life also in the center of the garden, and the tree of the knowledge of [the difference between] good and evil and blessing and calamity.(
Let's of course not rest the whole thesis on that one translation.

Of course, we have been round and round on Paul's statement that "By one man, death entered." Let's not rest it all on that either.

I would suggest that we first have a look at two different ways by which God acts.

1. Speaking to the sea - be still; Speaking to the demons - come out of him; And to to Lazarus -- Lazarus come forth. All examples are direct, generally immediate with no mediating process, agency or force - -much like the reference in my signature below.

2. Another way to act is to act through the corrupt processes of human agency. Sennecherib is sent packing, where he is murdered by his children. 2 Chron. 32 (And, Paul states generally, "God does not desire the death of a sinner, but rather that he should repent and live.")

By contrast, the angel that slays 185,000 seems to kill without human agency and without delay -- apparently a "type 1" intervention.

In the case of Nebuchadnezzar, the Jews are told not to resist him, but to let him "clean house" (including lots of killing), with the promise that those who trust would be protected by Nebuchadnezzar. ... A Type 2 intervention. Nebuchadnezzar is only later converted, but he is none the less overt in his sin, yet he fulfills the purposes of God.

The verse I quoted was Jesus' lament over Jerusalem. More precisely I had in view the lament that Jerusalem was about 40 years from Titus Vespasian, who did not leave "one stone upon another" when the Temple was destroyed.

The example of Jerusalem and Jesus is about how the purposes of God are put into motion, sometimes slowly, but ineluctably, yet through corruption and sin . I think this is less "ex nihilo" than theother way of action.

On one hand, God will in fact "use" satan himself , or perhaps rather to be more precise, the purposes of God are advanced even by satan, despite satan's intentions, as in Job. (Eg, that God did not ache for Job is not denied in the text. That it is not stated is not really of concern. If the Holy Spirit wrote that book, no doubt that which inspired the writer was feeling for Job for sure.)

My proposition is that there are two types of activity: In one type, God is sovereign in all aspects of an event. He speaks things that are not as if they were (sight to the blind, life to the dead, freedom to the possessed/). In the second type, His results will also be acomplished, but only eventually, through the agency of sinful, fallen creatures, and even through their sovereignty (or free will). Is it not fair to say that the latter means is heartbreaking even for God?

One basis for distinguishing these two types of action as to do with the sovereignty of man. Where man will cede his sovereignty, God can act to restore sight. (Did Lazarus consent? Doesn't matter a great deal to me.)

Returning the example of Jerusalem, and as for the final acceptance of King Jesus in national Israel, note the following:

Hsa 5:15 I will go [and] return to my place, till they acknowledge their offence, and seek my face: in their affliction they will seek me early.

God will apparently return and act through his own agency, of which the resurrection was a type and example.

Isa 63:5 And I looked, and [there was] none to help; and I wondered that [there was] none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me.

There would appear to be a division between the fall an the post-fall world, and between the fallen world and the restored paradise of the future. That is my proposition, though much of it is by inference. As I said to Shernren, it is not easy, but I think it holds up. And what Paul made very easy, I made long-winded and complicated.

Does God abhor all physical death? I am not sure why that needs to be debated. Not even a sparrow falls without God noticing, as the Gospel says. Does God feel for the sparrow? (Luke 12:6
Are not five sparrows sold for two pennies ? Yet not one of them is forgotten by God.) Let's not worry too much about that, but go the the question of Jerusalem.

Would God prefer to save Israel through the agency of Titus Vespasian (not to mention the coming holocaust, already begun) or through their immediate repentence? Isn't that answer obvious?

So, again we get the point of death. Victory over death is the final victory. I don't understand why that should not be near the center of our theology? Creation was good before teh fall and the ground was cursed after. Is it is said as directly as we would like outside of Paul? Maybe no. But, why are we in such a rush to make death a part of the pre-fall paradise? Would God prefer death for his creatures? I think the case is pretty clearly, no.
 
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Xaero

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Hi busterdog :wave:

thanks for your response - you are going pretty deep and strive away from the main question, but all your thoughts are worth considering .. i also could write many, but i try to be short.

My argument here is that Isa 54:16 shows that the use of 'bara' cannot be taken as a word only related to ex nihilo events


Generally, when God speaks, it is done ex nihilo.
Healing seems different than creation - the miracles that Jesus did are clearly instant, because it is in the context of short time periods of human activity, i.e. people following Jesus, getting healed, then getting sent away while the day declines (see Luk 9).
With this in background you know that the healing events are more or less fast events.
The creation event of blacksmith&waster in Isa54:16 isn't viewed as ex nihilo, because you know that normally people don't come out of nothing - they were born, grow up and learn their craft. You also know that nations don't come out of nothing (God is also the creator of Israel) (Isa 43).

So we know that god uses natural events to fulfill his will? Then why still believe god uses ex nihilo in Gen1 rather than working through natural processes?
It all comes down to the meaning of "evening .. morning .. day" in the context of god's activity, and since large time periods are for god like yesterday (Psalm90) and vice versa (2Pe3:8) one can assume that the days of Genesis are divine days that cannot be directly compared to human timescale:

The days of Gen1 are not in context to any time period of human activity, only god is acting!


But, why are we in such a rush to make death a part of the pre-fall paradise? Would God prefer death for his creatures? I think the case is pretty clearly, no.
Then why are all lifeforms cursed only because one living being transgressed god's law? YECs won't come around the fact that he sends his creatures back to dust (Psa90) or gives them meat (Psa104), all events include physical death and nothing suggests in those verses that it worries god.

Death isn't perfect but it had the purpose of turning creatures to dust again, so other creatures can live. The paradise of the YECs would be overcrowded in 10-20 years, so at least all animals must die in a prefall world. Otherwise why didn't god created a bunch of lifeforms which hadn't the need to reproduce, so the world didn't get overcrowded?
Victory over death is the final victory.
When death and hades is cast into the "lake of fire" it is the second death which Jesus warned about, when he said: “But I say to you, My friends, do not be afraid of those who kill the body, and after that are unable to do any more.
But I shall show you whom you should fear: Fear the One who, after killing, possesses authority to cast into Gehenna. Yea, I say to you, fear Him!"

It isn't the killing of the body it is the second death which is more worse ...
 
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busterdog

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Xaero,

I thought I answered all the questions. I also don't think "bara" is confined to ex nihilo events, but I don't see how that changes the issue. Most of what you speak of can be rationalized on the distinctions between a post and pre-fall world. Such as eating fruit in Eden, but not flesh.

As for the sacrifice of animals for their skins, again: post-fall. Did it "worry" God? I think the best presumption is that yes it did. The contrary argument just strikes me as weak.

I guess this is like "yom" where one might look at various uses to infer what was meant in Gen. 1.

I am not sure what you are saying about the creation of the waster? Why would that not be in the ordinary course? Soldiers are born, raised, taught to fight and driven by a tyrant.

As for healing, to the extent God had a corpse to work with in Lazarus, there was not absolutely nothing. But, there had to have been some new tissue created when the dead man cam alive immediately. Not clear on what you are trying to do with that distinctions, since it "fast" or "immediate" seems to be closely related to "ex nihilo."
 
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shernren

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Did it "worry" God? I think the best presumption is that yes it did. The contrary argument just strikes me as weak.

For any good reason, or simply because it gives you a squeamish feeling inside?
 
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busterdog

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For any good reason, or simply because it gives you a squeamish feeling inside?

Mostly inference:

A sparrow does not fall without his notice;

In his paradise, the lion will lie down with the lamb;

All of creation groans waiting for the revealing of the sons of God;

The blood of Abel cries out to God from the ground;

You already know my position on when death entered and when it will be destroyed.

Those scripture suggest a picture where God would prefer a paradise without death and he went to such care to create the animals, which we feel greatly for, we who are made in his image.

Just inference.

But, the contrary inference seems most to be based upon an evolutionary world view. God was the first to sacrifice an animal, but I think that just begs the question about whether he was acting of necessity in a fallen world.
 
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shernren

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A sparrow does not fall without his notice;

God notices the fall of a sparrow. Does He regret the fall of a sparrow? Again you're going out on a limb here.

In his paradise, the lion will lie down with the lamb;

In His paradise, there will be no Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. So there is already one thing (and a pretty important thing at that) present before the Fall which will not be present in the future world. Why can't animal death be yet another such thing?

All of creation groans waiting for the revealing of the sons of God;

Because man in his greed tears apart nature.

The blood of Abel cries out to God from the ground;

Abel was not an animal.

You already know my position on when death entered and when it will be destroyed.

I do. I'm just not convinced that it has more to do with Scripture than with sentimentality.

But, the contrary inference seems most to be based upon an evolutionary world view. God was the first to sacrifice an animal, but I think that just begs the question about whether he was acting of necessity in a fallen world.

God practically parades nature red in tooth and claw down the aisle in Job 39. Job is one of the few places where God openly discusses theodicy. Anything He says about the problem of natural evil there ought to be taken very seriously.
 
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Xaero

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I thought I answered all the questions. I also don't think "bara" is confined to ex nihilo events,
ok, that's what i wanted to hear

I am not sure what you are saying about the creation of the waster? Why would that not be in the ordinary course?
because scriptures says 'Elohim bara', so it MUST be supernatural/ex nihilo ;)

but I don't see how that changes the issue.
this is my point: we know its ordinary and in scripture we read:"i created"
why not take it literal like Gen5:1 ".. In the day that Elohim created man" and believe in a sudden creation of blacksmith&waster?


so we can agree that god uses natural events to fulfill his will and it's described in scripture as "create". no ex nihilo here
 
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Xaero

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Not clear on what you are trying to do with that distinctions, since it "fast" or "immediate" seems to be closely related to "ex nihilo."
by this word i mean ex nihilo. you are right, ex nihilo is normally considered fast but i also could imagine slower "ex nihilos", but practically you are right - with fast event i mean ex nihilo event.
 
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