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AV1611VET

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As I have posted many times one single picture can refute YEC
Please tell me how that picture 'refutes' YEC.

Better yet, explain how natural uniformitarianism refutes divine catastrophism.

How long did it take the oceans of this world to reach its current level?

Longer than that chalk?

Then I submit that if God can "heap" ocean water to its current level in one yoctosecond, He can most certainly "heap" that "tiny bit" of chalk together with no problem.
 
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LifeToTheFullest!

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Please tell me how that picture 'refutes' YEC.

Better yet, explain how natural uniformitarianism refutes divine catastrophism.

How long did it take the oceans of this world to reach its current level?

Longer than that chalk?

Then I submit that if God can "heap" ocean water to its current level in one yoctosecond, He can most certainly "heap" that "tiny bit" of chalk together with no problem.
Unless natural processes prove otherwise.

Anhhh, nevermind...
 
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laconicstudent

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Then I submit that if God can "heap" ocean water to its current level in one yoctosecond, He can most certainly "heap" that "tiny bit" of chalk together with no problem.


Logical fallacy. God-of-the-Gaps and violation of parsimony.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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So how did we arrive at a date for the "earliest times".
You mean, how did we get the figure of 4.54 billion years? Mainly by extra-terrestrial sources: namely, meteorites. Since they formed are pretty much the same time as the Earth and everything else in the Solar System, their age is a very good indicator of the Earth's age. There are a great many meteor fragments on Earth, which we have dated to 4.54 billion years old.

This method also corroborates nicely with the other methods we have, such as dating Moon rocks (which would be as old as the Moon itself, and hence as old as the Earth), giving us an age of 4.4-4.5 billion years.

So the earth could be older than 4.6 billion years then?
Yep, though probably not that much older.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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Logical fallacy. God-of-the-Gaps and violation of parsimony.
It's irrational, but I don't see how it's illogical. God-of-the-gaps is an ad hoc, but not necessarily flawed, piece of logic. And parsimony refers to simplicity and probability; being unparsimonious doesn't disprove an argument outright.
 
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AV1611VET

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You mean, how did we get the figure of 4.54 billion years? Mainly by extra-terrestrial sources: namely, meteorites.
I thought it was from Zircon, the oldest mineral [?] on the planet.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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I thought it was from Zircon, the oldest mineral [?] on the planet.
There are crystal minerals in Australia that date to 4.5 billion years old, and they could very well be Zircon. You'd have to ask a geologist for more details, I'm honestly a little out of my depth here ^_^.
 
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AV1611VET

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There are crystal minerals in Australia that date to 4.5 billion years old, and they could very well be Zircon. You'd have to ask a geologist for more details, I'm honestly a little out of my depth here ^_^.
Oh, no you don't!

I fell for that trick once!

Flew to Australia, and none of the geologists there would talk to me!

;)
 
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lucaspa

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Just because we have no evidence the flood didn’t occur doesn’t prove it didn’t

Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence

Sometimes absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. BUT, the flood would have produced effects that would have lasted to today. This is particularly true of Flood Geology developed from the idea of the flood.

In the early 19th century most scientists accepted the theory that 1) there was a world-wide Flood and 2) this Flood caused all geological sediments. However, starting in the 1790s geologists found more and more geological features that simply could not exist if there had been a flood. One of these are the volcanoe cones in Auvergne, France. These are very delicate cones, easily collapsed, and if there had been a flood after the volcanos had formed the cones, the cones would have collapsed. So all the sediments at the feet of the cones had to have been laid down by mechanisms other than a world-wide flood.

More and more geological layers were eliminated as 1) either laid down by a flood or 2) existing before a flood, because the flood would have wiped them out. By the 1820s, all the layers except the topmost gravels and morraines had been eliminated as being consistent with a flood. By 1831 even these had been eliminated and the evidence was that there never was a world-wide flood.

It wasn't absence of evidence, but massive evidence to the contrary.

Ironically for your thesis, there is considerable evidence of very severe flood(s) in the Tigris-Euprhates Valley. Yes, evidence for a flood(s). So, no, floods do not have an "absence of evidence". There is evidence associated with them.
 
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lucaspa

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Flew to Australia, and none of the geologists there would talk to me!

Had you taken a bath recently?

Fortunately, we don't have to rely upon (very possibly) mendacious personal anecdotes like this on the validity of scientific evidence. One of the more powerful things about science is that it is public knowledge. Scientists publish their data for everyone to see, and don't rely upon personal conversations with American tourists.

The oldest known rocks on earth are in Australia: The Earliest Piece of the Earth

Of course, we also have rocks from the moon (where there is no erosion) and have dated several dozen (or hundred) meteorites (again no erosion) and they all converge on an age of 4.55 +/- .05 billion years.
 
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