Kylie
Defeater of Illogic
- Nov 23, 2013
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If that's what you thought, then what were you doing in <this post> -- you know, the one I was actually responding to??
"It can very well be impossible for anyone to know other than the person who did it," therefore...? Therefore what?
What I was saying in my response was, "Therefore, nothing!" You were pursuing a dead end with an invalid argument.
I don't see how this...
If the perpetrator knows their own motive, and knowing the motive is sufficient for objective morality, then objective morality exists. The objective moral fact would be known by the perpetrator and anyone else who is able to discover it. Even if no one else is able to discover it, the objective moral fact still exists via the perpetrator's knowledge.
...means, "And therefore nothing!"
As I've said, I read that post of yours as saying:
Premise 1: The perpetrator knows their own motive.
Premise 2: Knowing the motive is sufficient for objective morality.
Given premises 1 and 2, we can conclude that objective morality exists.
While I agree that the conclusion is a valid one from the premises, I disagree that premise 2 reflects reality. It's like saying, "Any living animal with feathers is a bird, cats have feathers, therefore cats are birds." While the conclusion does follow from the premises, the second premise that cats have feathers is not accurate to reality, and thus the conclusion itself is wrong.Premise 2: Knowing the motive is sufficient for objective morality.
Given premises 1 and 2, we can conclude that objective morality exists.
I certainly did not read it as saying, "And therefore, nothing!"
And to answer your question, what I was doing in that post of mine you linked to was pointing out that it is possible that the only person who knows what the motivation for an act was would be the person who carried out that act.
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