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Eternal justification

JM

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Quoting Gill:

Faith is the evidence and manifestation of justification, and therefore justification must be before it;
"Faith is the evidence of things not seen", #Heb 11:1 but it is not the evidence of that which as yet is not; what it is an evidence of, must be, and it must exist before it. The "righteousness of God", of the God-man and mediator Jesus Christ, "is revealed from faith to faith", in the everlasting gospel, #Ro 1:17 and therefore must be before it is revealed, and before faith, to which it is revealed: faith is that grace whereby a soul, having seen its guilt, and its want of righteousness, beholds, in the light of the divine Spirit, a complete righteousness in Christ, renounces its own, lays hold off that, puts it on as a garment, rejoices in it, and glories of it; the Spirit of God witnessing to his spirit, that he is a justified person; and so he is evidently and declaratively "justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God", #1Co 6:11.

ABRAHAM KUYPER, THE WORK OF THE HOLY SPIRIT, 1900, Page 371 the Son who in His Incarnation and Resurrection brings about justification, so it is, in more limited sense, the Holy Spirit particularly who reveals this justification to the persons of the elect and causes them to appropriate it to themselves. It is by this act of the Holy Spirit that the elect obtain the blessed knowledge of their justification, which only then begins to be a living reality to them.
For this reason Scripture reveals these two positive, but apparently contradictory truths, with equally positive emphasis: (1) that, on the one hand, He has justified us in His own judgment-seat from eternity; and (2) that, on the other, only in conversion are we justified by faith.
And for this reason faith itself is fruit and effect of our justification; while it is also true that, for us, justification begins to exist only as a result of our faith.


http://homepage.mac.com/shanerosenthal/reformationink/akjust2.htm
http://www.pristinegrace.org/media.php?id=354
http://members.aol.com/gregscv/brine.htm

 
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Jon_

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Do you hold to this doctrine?
I assume you mean whether or not forensic justification is temporal or not? I used to think justification was eternal, but I'm not too sure anymore. I suppose it depends on the object of justification. Is it the extant soul that is justified or is it the man in God's mind that is justified? Is this something that can even truly be answered?

This debate is central to the common grace controversy ever since Hoeksema asserted we are eternally justified and loved by God in his Reformed Dogmatics.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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JM

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I assume you mean whether or not forensic justification is temporal or not? I used to think justification was eternal, but I'm not too sure anymore. I suppose it depends on the object of justification. Is it the extant soul that is justification or is it the man in God's mind that is justified? Is this something that can even truly be answered?

This debate is central to the common grace controversy ever since Hoeksema asserted we are eternally justified and loved by God in his Reformed Dogmatics.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon

Hey Jon,

This topic has my full attention right now. I'm familar with the Protestant Reformed Church stance, here's a link: http://www.prca.org/articles/article_7.html

It was John Gill's work that grabed my attention, and since then, I've read a few articles on the net. The nagging question is,
in Romans 9 we see "Jacob I loved Esau I hated" and this was before they had done good or evil. On what basis did God love them? The more I think on it, the more sense it makes.

"Sometimes people reject the doctrine of eternal justification as though the doctrine indicates that people do not have to believe in order to be justified. That is not a valid comparison. By eternal justification all we mean is that justification is bound to God’s eternal decree. We are not saying that someone is justified subjectively before he believes. Romans 8:29-30, “For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.” Many times we view these verses as taking place in time but these are all tied together — “whom he did foreknow he also did predestinate… moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called…” We know that at the time Paul wrote this passage not everyone who would be called had already been called. Then why did he use the past tense? He used the past tense because these graces are linked from all eternity."

and

"The Bible speaks of an objective justification as well as a subjective justification. When God looks at his people objectively, he sees Christ. Objectively he sees the righteousness of Christ, not our sin. But that does not mean that subjectively each one of us is justified until such time as we believe. To give you an idea of what this idea signifies, we need to read Romans 4:25, “Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.” If Christ was “raised again for our justification,” when does our justification take place? Did our justification take place at his resurrection? Does our justification take place when we believe? There is an objective sense in which God sees nothing but Christ when he looks at his elect people though they have yet to believe. But there is also a subjective sense in which we receive that justification at such time as we believe.

Let’s consider the example of a surety standing for a debt. When was the debt paid? Was the debt paid when the surety first agreed to stand for it or was the debt paid when the debt was actually paid, or was the debt paid when the debtor received the information that the debt was paid for him? There is a sense in which each of those times is correct. As soon as the surety agrees to pay the debt, the debt is no longer hanging over the original debtor. Then, when the debt actually comes due and the surety pays the debt, there is the sense in which that is the time at which the debt is paid. And finally, when the original debtor comes in to pay his own debt and finds that it has already been paid for him, subjectively it is then that the person is notified that the debt has been paid for him. So, in different aspects, in different senses, all three times are correct. During the Reformation the doctrine of predestination, the doctrine of election and the doctrine of justification were closely bound together. There cannot be one without the others. This is why the Reformers could not accept an Arminian gospel as being a true gospel. We have to see justification as referring to the eternal decree of God, or we do not see Christ as surety."
Richard Bacon

http://www.fpcr.org/blue_banner_arti...ification2.htm


:groupray:
 
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Jon_

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Hey Jon,

This topic has my full attention right now. I'm familar with the Protestant Reformed Church stance, here's a link: http://www.prca.org/articles/article_7.html

It was John Gill's work that grabed my attention, and since then, I've read a few articles on the net. The nagging question is,
in Romans 9 we see "Jacob I loved Esau I hated" and this was before they had done good or evil. On what basis did God love them? The more I think on it, the more sense it makes.

"Sometimes people reject the doctrine of eternal justification as though the doctrine indicates that people do not have to believe in order to be justified. That is not a valid comparison. By eternal justification all we mean is that justification is bound to God’s eternal decree. We are not saying that someone is justified subjectively before he believes. Romans 8:29-30, “For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.” Many times we view these verses as taking place in time but these are all tied together — “whom he did foreknow he also did predestinate… moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called…” We know that at the time Paul wrote this passage not everyone who would be called had already been called. Then why did he use the past tense? He used the past tense because these graces are linked from all eternity."

and

"The Bible speaks of an objective justification as well as a subjective justification. When God looks at his people objectively, he sees Christ. Objectively he sees the righteousness of Christ, not our sin. But that does not mean that subjectively each one of us is justified until such time as we believe. To give you an idea of what this idea signifies, we need to read Romans 4:25, “Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.” If Christ was “raised again for our justification,” when does our justification take place? Did our justification take place at his resurrection? Does our justification take place when we believe? There is an objective sense in which God sees nothing but Christ when he looks at his elect people though they have yet to believe. But there is also a subjective sense in which we receive that justification at such time as we believe.

Let’s consider the example of a surety standing for a debt. When was the debt paid? Was the debt paid when the surety first agreed to stand for it or was the debt paid when the debt was actually paid, or was the debt paid when the debtor received the information that the debt was paid for him? There is a sense in which each of those times is correct. As soon as the surety agrees to pay the debt, the debt is no longer hanging over the original debtor. Then, when the debt actually comes due and the surety pays the debt, there is the sense in which that is the time at which the debt is paid. And finally, when the original debtor comes in to pay his own debt and finds that it has already been paid for him, subjectively it is then that the person is notified that the debt has been paid for him. So, in different aspects, in different senses, all three times are correct. During the Reformation the doctrine of predestination, the doctrine of election and the doctrine of justification were closely bound together. There cannot be one without the others. This is why the Reformers could not accept an Arminian gospel as being a true gospel. We have to see justification as referring to the eternal decree of God, or we do not see Christ as surety."
Richard Bacon

http://www.fpcr.org/blue_banner_arti...ification2.htm


:groupray:
This largely echoes what I have thought for as long as I have thought about the subject; however, it is not without much careful and dedicated study of the Scripture that I would oppose the Westminster Confession, which I take as my subordinate standard of doctrine. I think I still have more to read on the subject.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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JM

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This largely echoes what I have thought for as long as I have thought about the subject; however, it is not without much careful and dedicated study of the Scripture that I would oppose the Westminster Confession, which I take as my subordinate standard of doctrine. I think I still have more to read on the subject.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon

I hear ya Jon, I'm not a WCF kind of guy, but I wouldn't just chuck it out at a whim. Someone on another forum brought this point up, "WCF Chapter 11, Article 4, “God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect . . . .” The thrust being, the WCF isn't being denied but EJ is explicating the teaching.

That said, I'm more Baptistic in my thinking and lean on the London Baptist Confession of 1644/6 and Dr. John Gills Carter Lane Declaration.

Have you read Absolute Predestination by Gilbert Beebe? It's online in a bunch of places and fits nicely in this topic.

Peace,

jm












 
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Jon_

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How were the OT saved believe Christ died on the cross?
I'm guessing this question should read, "How were the OT saints saved--by believing Christ died on the cross?" The answer must be that those who pre-date Christ's coming must have had the same object of faith as we do, otherwise, they would not have believed in the Gospel, which alone saves. Obviously, they could not have known the person and work of Christ, but they did know God, and did believe that he would appoint them a Savior who would cleanse them from all unrighteousness and render them justified before the Father. We believe the same, except the tense is now past: We believe God appointed a Savior to cleanse us from all unrighteousness and render us justified before the Father.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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JM

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Thx Jon_

If Christ died 2000 years ago and made one offering for sin, then sat down, how does that apply to the OT saints? Was in retro-active? How does it apply to the saints that come to faith today? Is it held in escrow?
 
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Jon_

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Thx Jon_

If Christ died 2000 years ago and made one offering for sin, then sat down, how does that apply to the OT saints? Was in retro-active? How does it apply to the saints that come to faith today? Is it held in escrow?
After a manner of speaking, yes--it was retroactive. As we are fond of saying, Christ died for our sins, past, present, and future. Not only this, but he died for sinners past, present, and future. We are justified through Christ. That is, his righteousness is imputed to us through the instrument of faith, which is the gift of God. This gift is bestowed upon us through the work of the Holy Spirit in regeneration. As Paul writes, "Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified." And as he says in Ephesians:
According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved. In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace. (1:4-7)
Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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JM

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I agree, Christ died for our sins past, present and future, but what about having peace with God thru Christ, having ALL spiritual blessings [isn't imputed righteousness a blessing?] BEFORE the foundation of the world?

Eph 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Eph 1:2 Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.
Eph 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:
Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
 
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bradfordl

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Best explanation:

Heb 11:1 Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.
Heb 11:2 For by it the elders obtained a good report.
Heb 11:3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.
Heb 11:4 By faith Abel offered unto God a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, by which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts: and by it he being dead yet speaketh.
Heb 11:5 By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him: for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God.
Heb 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
Heb 11:7 By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith.
Heb 11:8 By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went.
Heb 11:9 By faith he sojourned in the land of promise, as in a strange country, dwelling in tabernacles with Isaac and Jacob, the heirs with him of the same promise:
Heb 11:10 For he looked for a city which hath foundations, whose builder and maker is God.
Heb 11:11 Through faith also Sara herself received strength to conceive seed, and was delivered of a child when she was past age, because she judged him faithful who had promised.
Heb 11:12 Therefore sprang there even of one, and him as good as dead, so many as the stars of the sky in multitude, and as the sand which is by the sea shore innumerable.
Heb 11:13 These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and embraced them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth.
Heb 11:14 For they that say such things declare plainly that they seek a country.
Heb 11:15 And truly, if they had been mindful of that country from whence they came out, they might have had opportunity to have returned.
Heb 11:16 But now they desire a better country, that is, an heavenly: wherefore God is not ashamed to be called their God: for he hath prepared for them a city.
Heb 11:17 By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
Heb 11:18 Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:
Heb 11:19 Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.
Heb 11:20 By faith Isaac blessed Jacob and Esau concerning things to come.
Heb 11:21 By faith Jacob, when he was a dying, blessed both the sons of Joseph; and worshipped, leaning upon the top of his staff.
Heb 11:22 By faith Joseph, when he died, made mention of the departing of the children of Israel; and gave commandment concerning his bones.
Heb 11:23 By faith Moses, when he was born, was hid three months of his parents, because they saw he was a proper child; and they were not afraid of the king's commandment.
Heb 11:24 By faith Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh's daughter;
Heb 11:25 Choosing rather to suffer affliction with the people of God, than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season;
Heb 11:26 Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward.
Heb 11:27 By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured, as seeing him who is invisible.
Heb 11:28 Through faith he kept the passover, and the sprinkling of blood, lest he that destroyed the firstborn should touch them.
Heb 11:29 By faith they passed through the Red sea as by dry land: which the Egyptians assaying to do were drowned.
Heb 11:30 By faith the walls of Jericho fell down, after they were compassed about seven days.
Heb 11:31 By faith the harlot Rahab perished not with them that believed not, when she had received the spies with peace.
Heb 11:32 And what shall I more say? for the time would fail me to tell of Gedeon, and of Barak, and of Samson, and of Jephthae; of David also, and Samuel, and of the prophets:
Heb 11:33 Who through faith subdued kingdoms, wrought righteousness, obtained promises, stopped the mouths of lions,
Heb 11:34 Quenched the violence of fire, escaped the edge of the sword, out of weakness were made strong, waxed valiant in fight, turned to flight the armies of the aliens.
Heb 11:35 Women received their dead raised to life again: and others were tortured, not accepting deliverance; that they might obtain a better resurrection:
Heb 11:36 And others had trial of cruel mockings and scourgings, yea, moreover of bonds and imprisonment:
Heb 11:37 They were stoned, they were sawn asunder, were tempted, were slain with the sword: they wandered about in sheepskins and goatskins; being destitute, afflicted, tormented;
Heb 11:38 (Of whom the world was not worthy) they wandered in deserts, and in mountains, and in dens and caves of the earth.
Heb 11:39 And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, received not the promise:
Heb 11:40 God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.
 
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Jon_

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I agree, Christ died for our sins past, present and future, but what about having peace with God thru Christ, having ALL spiritual blessings [isn't imputed righteousness a blessing?] BEFORE the foundation of the world?

Eph 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Eph 1:2 Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.
Eph 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:
Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
It's important to consider the tense of the verbs. There are three key ones in particular in vv. 3 and 4. Here is v. 3:
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ.
In this verse we're concerned with the tense of "hath" (has), as its tense will tell us logically if not chronologically "when" God bestrowed us with all spiritual blessings. The Greek tense of the verb is aorist, which is actually chronologically agnostic. That is, the aorist tense is tenseless. This seems odd to most, especially English speakers, as English does not have anything equivalent. What "hath" really means here is that he has blessed us past, present, and future. The aorist is essentially all tenses. You'll find that it is typically translated in the past (mostly) or present (less often) tense, though.

So, based on this verse, your argument seems to be correct, but let's move onto v. 4:
According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love.
Here, we are concerned with "hath" again and also "should be." Hath tells us when we were chosen (that is, when we were predestined). This is not as important to the topic as "should be," however. "Should be" here speaks directly on the subject: when we are justified. Let's tackle hath first.

Hath here is aorist again and is set in the middle voice, indicative mood. What does this mean? Well, it means that the verb is again tenseless and that it is reflexive and a statement of fact. In other words it is a statement of fact about something God did himself and it transcends a particular tense. "God himself did from all time predestine us" is what this clause means. This seems to keep in line with a doctrine of eternal justification, but it is not itself a proof text because the aorist is tense-agnostic, as we discussed. (Note that we are sparing the finer points of Greek exegesis here, as we would have to discriminate among the various modes of the aorist, i.e. inceptive, cumulative, and punctiliar.)

That leaves us with "should be," which also clinches the discussion, at least so far as this passage is concerned. "Should be" is set in the present tense infinitive, which means Paul is saying that we are predestined from eternity that we should be justified (holy and without blame) now. So, from this verse it appears the Westminster Confession is spot-on. The decree of justification is eternal, but the application of justification is temporal.

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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cygnusx1

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I think this subject can best be explained by considering first man's fallen condition.

Individually condemnation is upon us all , not when we sin , but at the very moment Adam sinned.

Here is my main question , does sin come from condemnation or does condemnation come from sin ?

Sure there are scriptures that indicate personal condemnation is by personal unbelief

Whoever believes in him will not be condemned, but whoever does not believe has already been condemned, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God. - John 3:18

but who here believes that this personal individual condemnation which takes place in time , is THE ONLY condemnation ?

Are we not in a state of oneness relating to our standing as ONE race in ADAM?

Do we also not only inherit a sin nature from our first parent Adam , but also a condemned nature ?

How can we be condemned before we are alive ?

The answer is God does view us as one race , Adam sinned as a head over his offspring when he fell , they fell , in him .
Adam was a common head , not just a single individual.

And so condemnation is upon Adam and everyone in Adam's race .

The sin of unbelief does not condemn a person , it reveals and adds to his condemned state , there are degrees of punishment in the after life.

Romans 5:12-21
Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. 16 The gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification. 17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ. 18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. 19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20 The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.​
back to my earlier question ;
does sin come from condemnation or does condemnation come from sin ?

It would appear that it is both!

Condemnation comes from the sin of Adam , but the sin of his offspring comes from being in a condemned , cursed , polluted and totally depraved state.
 
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JM

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Is God immutable or does God change His mind? Does God hate us as sinners then change His mind when we believe and then loves us? Does God love and hate us after we are covered by the blood of Christ? Does the blood of Christ remove wrath of God but not God's hate for us?


~JM~
 
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Jon_

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Is God immutable or does God change His mind? Does God hate us as sinners then change His mind when we believe and then loves us? Does God love and hate us after we are covered by the blood of Christ? Does the blood of Christ remove wrath of God but not God's hate for us?


~JM~
I think the Westminster Confession of Faith puts it best:
(11:4) God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect, and Christ did, in the fullness of time, die for their sins, and rise again for their justification: nevertheless, they are not justified, until the Holy Spirit does, in due time, actually apply Christ unto them.
Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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Erinwilcox

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I think the Westminster Confession of Faith puts it best:
(11:4) God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect, and Christ did, in the fullness of time, die for their sins, and rise again for their justification: nevertheless, they are not justified, until the Holy Spirit does, in due time, actually apply Christ unto them.​
Soli Deo Gloria

Jon

Aren't those wonderful words? To think of the comfort and peace that so many evangelicals miss out on because they do not believe in the doctrines of grace. What sweet joy it is to ponder the thought that God chose ME before the world began, not because of anything that I would do, but because He loved me. That He sent His only son to die for MY sins and to be my propitiation. The very word "propitiation" is wonderful to meditate upon. Without propitiation, there could be no salvation. I found an email I sent last Christmas and it says so much of what I want to say right now. . .


I was reading various passages in Romans this morning (inspired by discussing Romans 9), I found the following verses in Romans 3. They sort of go along with some of what we discussed regarding the justice of God. You've got to love that word-PROPITIATION! It's incredible. I remember a sermon that my pastor preached several years ago. In it he said something to this effect, "Do you know what propitiation means? You should all know what it means. I should be able to wake you up from your sleep at 3 AM, ask you what propitiation means, and you should (at 3 AM) be able to respond, 'A Sacrifice to turn away wrath.'" That really stuck with me. Then I came across this verse (25). While I read Romans 9, 3, some of 8, etc. I was once again compelled to wonder how anyone could read those verses and say that the Doctrines of Grace are bogus. I mean, it is SOOOO clear! Oh well. Like God said, He will harden whom He will harden and have mercy on whom He will have mercy. He has shut the eyes of the proud and stopped the ears of the vain. Praise the Lord that He was willing to reveal some of these truths to us!

Rom 3:22 even the righteousness of God through faith of Jesus Christ toward all and upon all those believing; for there is no difference,
Rom 3:23 for all sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
Rom 3:24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption in Christ Jesus,
Rom 3:25 whom God set forth as a propitiation through faith in His blood, as a demonstration of His righteousness through the passing over of the sins that had taken place before, in the forbearance of God,
Rom 3:26 for a demonstration of His righteousness in the present time, for His being just and justifying the one that is of the faith of Jesus.
 
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JM

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I think the Westminster Confession of Faith puts it best:
(11:4) God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect, and Christ did, in the fullness of time, die for their sins, and rise again for their justification: nevertheless, they are not justified, until the Holy Spirit does, in due time, actually apply Christ unto them.
Soli Deo Gloria

Jon

An Exposition of the

Westminster Confession of Faith

Robert Shaw



IV. Sinners obtain an interest in the righteousness of Christ, for their justification, by God imputing it to them, and their receiving it by faith. The doctrine of the imputation of Christ's righteousness is rejected, not only by Romanists and Socinians, but by several authors of widely different sentiments. Let it be observed, that we plead for the imputation of the righteousness of Christ itself, and not merely of its effects. "To say that the righteousness of Christ, that is, his obedience and sufferings, are imputed to us only as to their effects, is to say, that we have the benefit of them, and no more; but imputation itself is denied. So say the Socinians; but they know well enough, and ingenuously grant, that they overthrow all true, real imputation thereby." The effects of Christ's righteousness are communicated to us upon the ground of the imputation of his righteousness itself; but they are really imparted, and not imputed to us. Many, we apprehend, oppose the doctrine of imputation, owing to their misconception of its proper nature. It does not signify the infusion of holy dispositions, or the actual transference of the righteousness of Christ to believers, so that it becomes inherently and subjectively theirs—that is impossible, in the nature of things; but the meaning is, that God reckons the righteousness of Christ to their account, and, in consideration of it, treats them as if they were righteous. God does not reckon that they performed it themselves, for that would be a judgment not according to truth; but he accounts it to them for their justification. "There are certain technical terms in theology," says Dr Chalmers, "which are used so currently, that they fail to impress their own meaning on the thinking principle. The term "impute' is one of them. It may hold forth a revelation of its plain sense to you, when it is barely mentioned that the term impute in the 6th verse (Rom. iv.), is the same in the original with what is employed in that verse of Philemon where Paul says, "If he hath wronged thee, or oweth thee ought, put that on mine account.' To impute righteousness to a man without works, is simply to put righteousness down to his account, though he has not performed the works of righteousness."


The doctrine of the imputation of Christ's righteousness is clearly taught in Scripture. We are represented as being constituted righteous by the obedience of Christ, as we are constituted sinners by the disobedience of Adam; and this can only be by imputation.—Rom. v. 19. We are also said to be made the righteousness of God in Christ, as he was made sin for us; and this, likewise, could only be by imputation. - 2 Cor. v. 21. We are expressly told that God imputeth righteousness without works.—Rom. iv. 6. This imputation proceeds upon the grounds of the believer's federal union with Christ from eternity, and of his vital union with him in time. Christ as the Surety of his spiritual seed, engaged from everlasting to fulfil this righteousness for them; he fulfilled it in their nature, and in their room; and when they become vitally united to him by the Spirit and by faith, God graciously accounts his righteousness to them for their justification.
 
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