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Eph 1:4 exegeted

Butch5

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There is absolutely zero evidence that the "us" in 1:4 is anything other than all believers. I think your view is preposterous at the least.

Of course you do, you have a doctrine to protect. However, anyone who has no doctrine to protect and can understand basic grammar should easily be able to follow Paul's argument.
 
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FreeGrace2

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You can't win FG2.

Jeremiah 3:14
Turn, O backsliding children, saith the Lord; for I am married unto you:
I'm truly sorry that you are just not getting the point. In God's economy, divorce isn't part of His plan. He uses firgurative language to communicate truths. Your one verse "proof texts" prove nothing.

However, I haven't used marriage as the example of a PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP, for the express reason that some will use marriage as an example. But I've already shown that God hates divorce and "it wasn't so at the beginning".

So, go ahead and desperately grasp on to your example of divorce. But you cannot refute the PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP between birth parent and child. And God uses that language to show the PERMANENCE of our relationship to Him. He is the believer's Father, and believers are His children. And that is permanent.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I said this:
"There is absolutely zero evidence that the "us" in 1:4 is anything other than all believers. I think your view is preposterous at the least."
Of course you do, you have a doctrine to protect.
Sure. The Biblical doctrine. Which is truth. I will always protect the truth.

However, anyone who has no doctrine to protect and can understand basic grammar should easily be able to follow Paul's argument.
Just a slick attempt to defend your own beliefs by saying that your view should be "easily followed". Kinda like saying "my doctrine is proven by Gen 1:1 thru Rev 22:21".

You've given no exegesis to support your claim. Just a very general claim without any evidence.
 
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EmSw

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I'm truly sorry that you are just not getting the point. In God's economy, divorce isn't part of His plan. He uses firgurative language to communicate truths. Your one verse "proof texts" prove nothing.

However, I haven't used marriage as the example of a PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP, for the express reason that some will use marriage as an example. But I've already shown that God hates divorce and "it wasn't so at the beginning".

So, go ahead and desperately grasp on to your example of divorce. But you cannot refute the PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP between birth parent and child. And God uses that language to show the PERMANENCE of our relationship to Him. He is the believer's Father, and believers are His children. And that is permanent.

What is the truth conveyed of God being married to the children of Israel? What is the truth conveyed when God sent the children of Israel a bill of divorcement?

Just go your way; you have made up your mind, and not even the word of God can change that. You pick what you want, so go your way and enjoy your life.
 
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FreeGrace2

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What is the truth conveyed of God being married to the children of Israel? What is the truth conveyed when God sent the children of Israel a bill of divorcement?

Just go your way; you have made up your mind, and not even the word of God can change that. You pick what you want, so go your way and enjoy your life.
Instead of being so stuck on marriage and divorce, why don't you concentrate on the REAL PERMANENT RELATIONHIP between birth parent and child? Because you have no answer to that PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP, which can't be screwed up by anything to severe the relationship.

Why did Moses give the people the law of divorcement? Jesus told us: "because your hearts are hard". Is that why you want to stick with divorce?

That's why I ignore divorce as irrelevant.

What is totally relevant and cannot be refuted is the PERMAMENT RELATIONSHIP between birth parent and child.
 
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Butch5

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I said this:
"There is absolutely zero evidence that the "us" in 1:4 is anything other than all believers. I think your view is preposterous at the least."

Sure. The Biblical doctrine. Which is truth. I will always protect the truth.


Just a slick attempt to defend your own beliefs by saying that your view should be "easily followed". Kinda like saying "my doctrine is proven by Gen 1:1 thru Rev 22:21".

You've given no exegesis to support your claim. Just a very general claim without any evidence.

Your doctrine isn't Biblical truth, it's error as I pointed out. If you were seriously interested in Biblical truth I would think you would be responding to the verse by verse breakdown using the Greek text. However, I seriously doubt that you even read it. It's been my experience with the Calvinists I dealt with that they are not interested in Biblical truth, but rather protecting their doctrines.

I showed how Paul is addressing two different groups. He refers to the one group as "we/us/our group and the other group he refers to as "you/your. That's just plain grammar. I think anyone knows that if I say us and you, I'm talking about two different groups of people. As I said, that's just plain grammar.

I didn't say my view should be easily followed, I said Paul's argument could be easily followed. You see it's this proof texting that is some prevalent among Christians that has lead to all of this confusion. Too many Christians just pull passage from their context and try to put their own spin on it.

Notice in verse Paul said,

4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, (Eph. 1:4 NKJ)

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth. (Deut. 7:6 KJV)

2 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God, and the LORD hath chosen thee to be a peculiar people unto himself, above all the nations that are upon the earth. (Deut. 14:2 KJV)

9 The LORD shall establish thee an holy people unto himself, as he hath sworn unto thee, if thou shalt keep the commandments of the LORD thy God, and walk in his ways.
10 And all people of the earth shall see that thou art called by the name of the LORD; and they shall be afraid of thee. (Deut. 28:9-10 KJV)

Notice the Holy and walking before the Lord.
 
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EmSw

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Instead of being so stuck on marriage and divorce, why don't you concentrate on the REAL PERMANENT RELATIONHIP between birth parent and child? Because you have no answer to that PERMANENT RELATIONSHIP, which can't be screwed up by anything to severe the relationship.

Why did Moses give the people the law of divorcement? Jesus told us: "because your hearts are hard". Is that why you want to stick with divorce?

That's why I ignore divorce as irrelevant.

What is totally relevant and cannot be refuted is the PERMAMENT RELATIONSHIP between birth parent and child.

You keep forgetting you were once a child of the devil. How permanent is that?
 
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FreeGrace2

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Your doctrine isn't Biblical truth, it's error as I pointed out. If you were seriously interested in Biblical truth I would think you would be responding to the verse by verse breakdown using the Greek text. However, I seriously doubt that you even read it. It's been my experience with the Calvinists I dealt with that they are not interested in Biblical truth, but rather protecting their doctrines.
You never proved your claim that the "us" in 1:4 means only Jews. An unsubstantiated claim is all you've done.

I showed how Paul is addressing two different groups. He refers to the one group as "we/us/our group and the other group he refers to as "you/your. That's just plain grammar.
And I pointed out that the 'us' in 1.4 is also found in 1:19. That's just plain grammar. And you never showed how the 2 "us's" are different.

I didn't say my view should be easily followed, I said Paul's argument could be easily followed. You see it's this proof texting that is some prevalent among Christians that has lead to all of this confusion. Too many Christians just pull passage from their context and try to put their own spin on it.
You continue to fail to make your case.

Notice in verse Paul said,

4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, (Eph. 1:4 NKJ)

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth. (Deut. 7:6 KJV)

2 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God, and the LORD hath chosen thee to be a peculiar people unto himself, above all the nations that are upon the earth. (Deut. 14:2 KJV)

9 The LORD shall establish thee an holy people unto himself, as he hath sworn unto thee, if thou shalt keep the commandments of the LORD thy God, and walk in his ways.
10 And all people of the earth shall see that thou art called by the name of the LORD; and they shall be afraid of thee. (Deut. 28:9-10 KJV)

Notice the Holy and walking before the Lord.
So what do all these OT verses have to do with Eph 1:4? You're not making a case.
 
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FreeGrace2

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You keep forgetting you were once a child of the devil. How permanent is that?
Let me ask you a very simple question: did the devil give birth to any human being?

I don't expect that you'd actually answer this, so I'll just give you the answer: no. And that's the key. God gives birth to those who believe. That's the birth parent and child relationship I'm referring to.

So show me from Scripture where the devil actually gives birth to any "children" of his. Or you don't have a point or a leg to stand on.
 
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EmSw

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Let me ask you a very simple question: did the devil give birth to any human being?

I don't expect that you'd actually answer this, so I'll just give you the answer: no. And that's the key. God gives birth to those who believe. That's the birth parent and child relationship I'm referring to.

So show me from Scripture where the devil actually gives birth to any "children" of his. Or you don't have a point or a leg to stand on.

From where do the children of the devil come?
 
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FreeGrace2

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From where do the children of the devil come?
You failed to answer my question.

Here it is again: did the devil give birth to any human being?

As I noted, I didn't expect that you'd answer it. But it seems you do think the devil gives birth to humans, which makes them his children.

So, what Scripture leads you to that view?

The Bible specifically says that those who believe become children of God. So, where does the Bible say anything about humans becoming children of the devil?

A lack of an answer will show that you have no basis for such a view.
 
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EmSw

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You failed to answer my question.

Here it is again: did the devil give birth to any human being?

As I noted, I didn't expect that you'd answer it. But it seems you do think the devil gives birth to humans, which makes them his children.

So, what Scripture leads you to that view?

The Bible specifically says that those who believe become children of God. So, where does the Bible say anything about humans becoming children of the devil?

A lack of an answer will show that you have no basis for such a view.

1 John 3:10
In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.
 
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Butch5

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You never proved your claim that the "us" in 1:4 means only Jews. An unsubstantiated claim is all you've done.

This is the typical response. When the evidence shows you're wrong just deny it.


And I pointed out that the 'us' in 1.4 is also found in 1:19. That's just plain grammar. And you never showed how the 2 "us's" are different.

I Have shown it. I explained Paul's use of first and second person personal plural pronouns. I also posted a link to a paper that goes into great depth explaining this using English and the Greek text.


You continue to fail to make your case.

You're welcome to keep pretending. You have doctrine that needs protecting.


So what do all these OT verses have to do with Eph 1:4? You're not making a case.

They tell you who was chosen to walk holy and blameless before the Lord.
 
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Did their "cutting off" action result in the DNA changing and the child was no longer physically related to the parents? I do want you to answer this question. I'd give you the answer, but I want you to actually think about it and answer it yourself.

Again, in real life if a son does evil against his father like say... try to kill him or something, he could have him arrested and put in prison. If the son repeatedly tries to kill his own father, then... it makes logical sense that the father could end his life so as to protect himself and the rest of the family. A dead son cannot spend time with his father. A son who is an enemy to his father is not going to want to spend time with Him and or have any relation with him (if he is being evil towards him and his other family who are good).

FreeGrace2 said:
So what? Did the physical relationship change? NO. The parents remained the parents and the child remained the child.

Again, irrelevant. The physical relationship between birth parent and child cannot be changed. What you are describing has NO relevance to the issue of relationship.

God is not immoral; And He does care in how believers behave. Also, there are dire consequences to one's soul in the after life if one does evil (Regardless of whether one is a believer or not). Even human fathers today would not put up with horrible sins done by their own sons within their home. Sin can destroy homes and break them apart.

FreeGrace2 said:
]I guess you still do not grasp what the physical relationship between birth parent and child actually is.

And the Bible says there are children of disobedience. Also, the children of the Kingdom will be cast into outer darkness, too.

FreeGrace2 said:
Now you're describing FELLOWSHIP, which is the dynamics of RELATIONSHIP. But you're still not understanding the difference.

When I first meet a new group of believers in their home to share in the Lord's supper and to study the Scriptures and to praise God, this would be considered fellowship (even if I just met them). No prior relationship needs to be established for me to have fellowship with new believers.

For John (and his group of believers where he was at) had desired to have fellowship with another group of believers he had written his epistle to. For John says,

"That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us" (1 John 1:3).

FreeGrace2 said:
In a marriage, even if the spouses are out of fellowship, they are still married. Duh.

In a physical birth parent to child, they can be totally at odds against each other, yet the physical relationship cannot be changed.
Is one's relationship good or bad? This determines whether or not they will want to spend time with that person and have fellowship with them or not. Why would one expect to be in Heaven for bad behavior against God? Is this any different in the real world?

FreeGrace2 said:
But you still don't understand that. I don't think you will ever understand that. Because if you did, you'd HAVE TO admit that the believer's relastionship with God is PERMANENT, which is something that you just won't admit. No matter the facts.
Well, guess what? God uses such descriptive wording to explain His permanent relationship with believers so that there ABSOLUTELY IS A RELATIONSHIP with God. So to say "there doesn't need to be a relationship" is rather silly since there ALREADY IS ONE.

If one believes that a saint's holiness is not important with God in regards to one's salvation, then one has to ask themselves: - Why does Jesus say to certain believers to:

"Depart from me ye that work iniquity (i.e. lawlessness, or sin)."?

FreeGrace2 said:
Oh, stop with this nonsense. You yourself continue to sin, as you've already indicated, yet you claim you are saved. So DON'T give me that silly "sin and be saved" nonsense.

Again, the person who stumbles into sin on their road to striving to overcoming sin is like the alcoholic who stumbles on his road to becoming sober free (saved).

The Eternal Security Proponent is like the alcoholic who joins a program having no real intention of giving up their drink and yet they somehow are claiming to be sober (saved).

FreeGrace2 said:
I have no idea what you are saying here. I know of no one in the OSAS camp that would EVER claim that any sins are "exempt". That's just stupid. And anyone who claims that any kind of sin is exempt (exempt from what, exactly) is a total idiot. Is that clear?
If it's sin, it needs to be confessed, according to 1 Jn 1:9.

There are different levels of Eternal Security. Some believe that a saint must generally live a holy life, but dying in one or two horrible unrepentant sins is not going to keep them out of God's Kingdom. They teach that all future sin is forgiven them and that no sin can separate a believer from God. Others believe that a believer can live in as much sin as they want and they will still be saved. Both versions of these groups believe in this mythical "fellowship sins" theory. Granted, there are some Eternal Security Proponents who do not believe in "fellowship sins", but they believe that sin on some level cannot separate them from God (Some believe that it takes a lot of sin to show that one is not saved and others believe that a saint can get away with one or two unconfessed sins).

FreeGrace2 said:
Really? After all I've explained already? You still are stuck on that silliness. As a child of God, we can expect God's hand of discipline for our sins. Even though David confessed his sins (Psa 38 and 51), he was still disciplined. And remember that God's discipline on him was very severe. He suffered greatly because of his sin. He got away with NOTHING.

Eternal Security Proponents use the excuse of discipline as saying that they will not get away sin. But what about a person's free will? Can a believer just totally walk away from God and choose their old life of sin again having nothing more to do with the Lord? If not, then one believes in Calvinism or forced salvation.


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Yes, Paul is writing to Jews and Gentiles. However, in verses 3-12 he is talking "about" Jews. The Jews were the ones who 'before hoped in the Christ.' The Gentiles are the "You" group who, 'in Him you also trusted after you heard the word of truth. One group, the, "us/we/our" group in which Paul puts himself before hoped in the Christ. The other group, the, "you/your" group trusted after they heard the word of truth.

No. Verse 13 includes the Gentiles into the people Paul is taling to. Also, Ephesians 2:11 (Which is connected to Ephesians 2:8-9) is clearly written to the Gentiles here. For it says,

"Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;" (Ephesians 2:11 KJV).

"Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called "uncircumcised" by those who call themselves "the circumcision" (which is done in the body by human hands)--" (Ephesians 2:11 NIV).

"Don't forget that you Gentiles used to be outsiders. You were called "uncircumcised heathens" by the Jews, who were proud of their circumcision, even though it affected only their bodies and not their hearts." (Ephesians 2:11 NLT).


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Even in Romans 9, Paul is writing to Gentiles even though he is talking about Israel and his desire for them to be saved. For Paul warns the Gentiles that they could be cut off just like the Jews in Romans 11.


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Butch5

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No. Verse 13 includes the Gentiles into the people Paul is taling to. Also, Ephesians 2:11 (Which is connected to Ephesians 2:8-9) is clearly written to the Gentiles here. For it says,

"Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;" (Ephesians 2:11 KJV).

"Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called "uncircumcised" by those who call themselves "the circumcision" (which is done in the body by human hands)--" (Ephesians 2:11 NIV).

"Don't forget that you Gentiles used to be outsiders. You were called "uncircumcised heathens" by the Jews, who were proud of their circumcision, even though it affected only their bodies and not their hearts." (Ephesians 2:11 NLT).


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Yes, in verse 13 Paul includes the Gentiles. That is where he switches from first person plural pronouns, us/we/our, to second person personal pronouns, you/ your. Verses 3-12 are the group who 'before hoped in the Christ'. Then in verse 13 Paul says, 'and you' here is begins to include the Gentiles.
 
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