simchat_torah
Got Torah?
- Feb 23, 2003
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Its all a nice theory, but not documented anywhere that Ebionites included Gentiles. No where. So it remains a theory unique to GerTzedek.sigh* I knew things were going to get too complicated. Things changed as history developed. First of all, in the beginning, during the time of the apostles, all these terms, Netzarim, Essenes, Ebyonim, etc, were being flung around, and there were scads of different groups. Anyone who wants to claim that during these years there were organized movements has only done superficial reading. They were more like schools of thought that overlapped among many different groups.
Later in time, these schools did begin to differentiate out from the Church, and from each other. However, it is difficult at best to sort out the truth, because the Church fathers and other sources are little better than people today -- they tended to put all the "others" in one basket and treat them as if they were the same.
That's a pretty big claim.I don't claim to be a historian or an expert, but I probably know more than most of the people writing those websites.
My friend who is receiving his doctorates in Early Christian History (and has 5 masters... why? I don't know, but he does) would disagree with you.
I also find it funny that when pressed for evidence, every single link you provided gave nothing to the effect, and all strongly disagreed with your platform that Ebionites included Gentiles.
The Torah clearly has mitzvot to govern Gentiles. There are laws that apply to every type of person... Jew/Gentile, male/female, within Israel/outside of Israel, etc. The Ebionites were not unique in this.I can give you this argument: it makes no sense for a group to have a doctrine that gentiles need to observe mosaic law if there are no gentiles within that community
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