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I think a better question would be " if God is real then who are you to question someone who can create you? " Obviously he would have reasoning beyond your current understanding of what he does and why.
This is a logical question even if you don't believe there is a God.
It's the same as telling a guy from India that his grammar is bad and you don't even know his language. Sounds silly right?
Last I checked, the bank won't beat me so hard that I could potentially die in a few days, and when I don't, they've done nothing wrong.
Analogy fail because I can learn other languages and gain the correct perspective.
And, even if god is real, why am I not allowed to question his actions? What sense does that make?
Did you not read the words of Christ? "love thy neighbor" or the old testament commandment "thou shalt not steal". Taking a person by force is kidnapping, thus stealing, so where does the bible say forcing people into slavery is legal?
As i said before, one scripture can't be used to define an idea in the bible. Beating people who owed a debt is not supported either because of the "law of love" love your neighbor as yourself. And also the commandment do unto others as you would have them do unto you.
Have you heard these words before?
In all they getting, get an understanding is also a scripture. If you don't understand why God did something then why are you now saying you already have the correct perspective?
Yes I have, and they are in direct conflict with the rules god laid out for slavery in the OT.
And which rules are those, please enlighten me?
I don't understand your question. I said it's possible for me to learn another language to gain the correct perspective on what is or isn't correct grammar. It is, according to most Christians, impossible to gain the perspective required to understand god and his actions. To which I ask, then, why can I not question the actions of an alleged deity especially since I cannot understand why he does what he does?
If you buy a Hebrew slave, he is to serve for only six years. Set him free in the seventh year, and he will owe you nothing for his freedom. If he was single when he became your slave and then married afterward, only he will go free in the seventh year. But if he was married before he became a slave, then his wife will be freed with him. If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. But the slave may plainly declare, 'I love my master, my wife, and my children. I would rather not go free.' If he does this, his master must present him before God. Then his master must take him to the door and publicly pierce his ear with an awl. After that, the slave will belong to his master forever. Exodus 21:2 thru 6
When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment. Exodus 21:7 thru 11
When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. Exodus 21:20 thru 21
Slaves, obey your earthly masters with deep respect and fear. Serve them sincerely as you would serve Christ. Ephesians 6:5
Just to name a few.
Also slaves should be freed after a certain time. This also goes against pre civil war slavery. In fact everything you have posted here confirms what I have said. Slavery in the bible is not the same as american pre civil war slavery, where men and women were just stolen from their homelands and forced into slavery.
44 Both thy bondmen and thy bondmaids, whom thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen who are round about you. From them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.
45 Moreover of the children of the strangers who sojourn among you, from them shall ye buy and from their families who are with you, whom they begot in your land; and they shall be your possession.
46 And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession. They shall be your bondmen for ever. But over your brethren, the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigor.
Thanks for blowing my Ace in the hole, Desk
Why would descendants of Adam and Eve have to suffer consequences for something that only Adam and Eve did? Further, why would god create a system in which he inflicts the disease AND administers the cure? Wouldn't it have been more efficient just to not inflict the disease in the first place?
You are mistaken when you attribute diseases to God. Sickness and death are in the world because of sin. Satan has temporary control of this Earth. Read Rev. 20 & 21. You will see what happens to sin and death and the Believers. It was a law of God that the sins of the fathers would be visited upon the sons. But then God sent Jesus to Earth to pay the price for those sins and individual sins of those who choose to accept Jesus as Savior.
I don't believe that in the Christian world Satan is given power to create. That would include diseases, viruses and such.Satan has temporary control of this Earth.
I think that, if something was actually communicated by the transcendent, omniscient God, he would have:I'm starting to wonder about what the Bible says.
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