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How do you determine that he includes all men? Is it based on what he says? Or just assumption?
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Paul is talking to the Christians of Rome but he includes all men without exception. Christ died for all - that is explicitly taught in scripture, Hebrews 2:9.
When are you going to stop avoiding what I have asked you many times now?
How do you determine that he includes all men? Is it based on what he says? Or just assumption?
Why does Paul preach salvation to the non-elect through belief in Christ's resurrection which you think Paul considered was only intended for the justification of the elect?
Romans 10. I have been showing you throughout this thread. I am sounding like a broken record. You did ask......
THIS:
Why does Paul preach salvation to the non-elect through belief in Christ's resurrection which you think Paul considered was only intended for the justification of the elect?
Only if Jesus was raised for the justification of all men does Paul survive the accusation of disingenuity.
Your question supposes that Paul intended justification for the non-elect was obtained by Christ's resurrection.
He was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification. (Romans 4:25 HCSB)
So you have to go to Romans 10? So up until Romans 10, you thought "our" meant Paul and his readers? What in Romans 10 changed your mind?
And let's not get carried away, Jan. You think justification is only for the elect.
I fitted in the words 'elect' and 'non-elect' as a Calvinist would use them. There not my views - there yours. I'll re-write it:
Why does Paul preach salvation to those whom you define as non-elect through belief in Christ's resurrection which you think Paul considered was only intended for the justification of those whom you consider elect?
You honestly don't understand this do you?
I went to Romans 4:5. And yes Romans 10 which is the OP.
Paul does not restrict 'our' to the elect as you aver. Romans 10 is proof of that but you won't engage with my argument.
Justification was provided for all. Christ died for all.
Scripture teaches this. YOU HAVE NO EQUIVALENT EXPLICIT SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS HE DIED FOR LESS THAN ALL.
Because he doesn't know who they are.
You have nothing but your presupposition is support "our" meaning all men. You certainly cannot get that from context.
So Paul should have said
He was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for the provision of our justification. (Romans 4:25 HCSB)
So Paul establishes unconditional election in Romans 9 (your view, not mine) but proceeds to tell those whom you describe as non-elect to believe in that which Paul establishes was not for their justification.
And it's okay because their not known?
No refutation. Calvinism makes Paul a liar.
Where does Paul ever explicitly restrict the provision of his death and resurrection? Nowhere.
Romans 10:9 is proof that LA is false.
Where is your explicit scripture that restricts the scope of Christ's death?
You don't have one.
Either Christ was raised for everyone's justification, or He wasn't. You need to decide.
But that's not what we are talking about. We are talking about Paul's use of "our" in 4:25.
But thanks for affirming my statement.
Paul tells us He was raised for all by writing Romans 10, else he is a liar. You are not dealing with this.
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