paleodoxy
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- Sep 27, 2005
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I wish the question in the OP had been framed differently. To ask whether personal opinion supersedes Scripture is really to ask whether opinion supersedes opinion, which is meaningless.
If we say that someone's opinion is not based on the Bible, we are assuming that ours is. But one's opinion, even if he uses the Bible, is based on his private interpretation of what the Bible teaches. In fact, we can't rely on individual interpretation of what Scripture teaches before we can agree on what the Biblical Canon is.
Therefore, the question of authority should enter in. Who has the right to interpret Scripture in an authoritative manner (applicable to all)?
In the Bible itself, we are taught that it is not based on private opinion, but rather on the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit working through the universal catholic church, through time, in her ecumenical/general councils (see, e.g., Acts 15:28).
I Tim.3:15 says that the Church is the "ground and pillar of truth", and Jesus promises in Jn.16:3 that the Spirit will lead the Apostles and their successors into "all truth".
It is the authority structure of the Church that is vested with the ability, through the Holy Spirit, of interpreting Scripture in an absolute sense. No individual, group of individuals, or local synod can speak with absolute authority on spiritual matters. Only the universal Church, as a united Body, representing the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Faith, may do so.
Also, Apostolic tradition, faithfully propagated by the Early Church Fathers in a collective way, is the only means of maintaining that continuity of teaching going back through the Apostles to Christ.
If we say that someone's opinion is not based on the Bible, we are assuming that ours is. But one's opinion, even if he uses the Bible, is based on his private interpretation of what the Bible teaches. In fact, we can't rely on individual interpretation of what Scripture teaches before we can agree on what the Biblical Canon is.
Therefore, the question of authority should enter in. Who has the right to interpret Scripture in an authoritative manner (applicable to all)?
In the Bible itself, we are taught that it is not based on private opinion, but rather on the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit working through the universal catholic church, through time, in her ecumenical/general councils (see, e.g., Acts 15:28).
I Tim.3:15 says that the Church is the "ground and pillar of truth", and Jesus promises in Jn.16:3 that the Spirit will lead the Apostles and their successors into "all truth".
It is the authority structure of the Church that is vested with the ability, through the Holy Spirit, of interpreting Scripture in an absolute sense. No individual, group of individuals, or local synod can speak with absolute authority on spiritual matters. Only the universal Church, as a united Body, representing the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Faith, may do so.
Also, Apostolic tradition, faithfully propagated by the Early Church Fathers in a collective way, is the only means of maintaining that continuity of teaching going back through the Apostles to Christ.
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