Infanticide is the homicide of an
infant; it can describe what might amount to a cultural act or an offence defined by the victim's age.
How, exactly, does killing an infant not constitute homicide? Did the infant already do something which would earn them the death penalty?
As to the quote from Psalms, if you don't like that one, how about Isaiah 13:15-16?
15 Whoever is captured will be thrust through;
all who are caught will fall by the sword.
16 Their infants will be dashed to pieces before their eyes;
their houses will be looted and their wives violated.
In this case, God says he'll tap the Medes to perform the extermination, rather than his chosen people. I see no difference; he still killed babies.
We can argue about the definition of genocide at a later time; suffice it to say, for now, that I would consider those acts described as genocide because they/He attempted to destroy an entire culture.
Oh, and bonus points: according the KJV, 'violated', should be read 'raped'.
Both from Wikipedia. What God commanded in the OT was not murder, therefore ruling out infanticide. You would also need to show that God intended to wipe out an entire people group: Since God is quite capable of doing this and didn't, it's safe to say that intent wasn't there, making any command to take a city no command of genocide, merely of war.
Killing non-combatants is not an act of war. It is murder.
It means that by today's standards, that which is commanded in the OT before 587 BC was for that time. You cannot possibly say with any amount of reasoning that God's laws then are applicable and judgable by today's standards because you ignore the context in making such a claim.
I cannot reasonably say the laws of the Old Testament should be followed today because said laws are barbaric, antiquated, and capricious.
You have stated in previous posts that which laws are to be followed changes over time, but the principles behind them remain throughout time. I would actually agree that certain ideas are common to all successful cultures: prohibition of murder, theft, or destruction of someone else's property being chief among them. The golden rule is a good moral compass, as well. Beyond those, which are independently expressed in other treatises on law and morality, which principals from the bible do you feel are preserved well and intact enough to constitute an absolute morality, or a form of morality which is only possible with the help of your holy texts?
PS: I must have transcribed the passages from Samuel incorrectly; I'll see if I can find the passages I was referring to. Sorry about that.
