2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 KJV
1 Now we beseech you, brethren,
by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means:
for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
You like most are being deceived by the Church of England translators who were trying to smear the RCC. Two evil churches trying to smear one another, so much so that one changes a KNOWN TRANSLATION of Departing to "Falling Away" when NOWHERE in the whole passage is Faith being spoken about, but a Gathering Together unto Christ Jesus is in the very first verse (Rapture).
My blog of 10 years ago, where I take my que from Pastor Tommy Ice
Is the Falling Away a mistranslation by the Church of England translators?
I have evolved with much study on this. I used to argue to all that there had to be this great "Falling Away" also. All because of this one passage. 2 Thessalonians 2:3. I do agree that the world gets far more evil towards the end(as in now), as foretold in Romans chapter 1, and as Peter said, there will be scoffers in the last days etc. But I do not think the true church can "Fall Away", either you are of Christ/God or you are not, and will get left behind by the Bridegroom. Anyway, here is my understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2:3.
“Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the
(1)apostasy comes first,
and the (2)man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction…” – 2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NASB) This verse is used by many and they say it implies a "Falling Away" from the faith. But a guy named Tommy Ice has shed some exceptional light on this passage. And by the way, this all about when God's wrath falls, not when the AC comes onto the scene, he is one of
TWO THINGS that Paul says must happen before the DOTL comes.
Mr. Ice has pointed out that the Greek noun, apostasia, is used only twice in the New Testament. The other occurrence is in Acts 21:21 where it states that an accusation was made against Paul that he was “teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake [apostasia] Moses.”
The word is used in verb form a total of 15 times in the New Testament, and
only three of these have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13, 1 Timothy 4:1, and Hebrews 3:12). In other settings, the word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Timothy 2:19), departing from ungodly men (1 Timothy 6:5), departing from the temple (Luke 2:27), departing from the body (2 Corinthians 12:8), and departing from persons (Acts 12:10 and Luke 4:13).
This insight about the use and meaning of the word was certainly compelling, but the argument Mr. Ice presented that was most convicting was his revelation that the first seven English translations of the Bible rendered the noun, apostasia, as either “departure” or “departing.”
They were as follows:
1.The Wycliffe Bible (1384)
2.The Tyndale Bible (1526)
3. The Coverdale Bible (1535)
4. The Cranmer Bible (1539)
5. The Great Bible (1540)
6. The Beeches Bible (1576)
7. The Geneva Bible (1608)
Mr. Ice also noted that the Bible used by the Western world from 400 AD to the 1500s — Jerome’s Latin translation known as “The Vulgate” —
rendered apostasia with the Latin word, discessio, which means “departure.” The first translation of the word to mean apostasy in an English Bible did not occur until 1611 when the King James Version was issued. So, why did the King James translators introduce a completely new rendering of the word as “falling away”?
The best guess is that they were taking a stab at the false teachings of Catholicism.
One other point Mr. Ice made that I think is significant is that
Paul used a definite article with the word apostasia. The significance of this is emphasized by Daniel Davey in a thesis he wrote for the Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary:
Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article, reference is being made to something in particular. In 2 Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that
Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.
In light of this grammatical point,
Tommy observed that “the use of the definite article would support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernible notion.” And that notion he had already identified in verse 1 when he stated that he was writing about “our gathering together to Him [Jesus].” This interpretation also corresponds to the point that Paul makes in verses 6 and 7 where he states that the
man of lawlessness will not come until what “restrains” him “is taken out of the way.”
And what it is that restrains evil in the world today? The Holy Spirit working through the Church. I think when the Church Departs, the Anti-Christ will be free to come to power.
I do not think this has anything to do with a Falling Away from the Faith. It is the Church Departing before the Anti-Christ is brought forth who also goes forth before God's Wrath falls onto mankind. The King James Bible changed the known understanding that has been around for 1500 some odd years via their 1611 rendition, all to take a swipe at their RCC rivals.
The real problem is people just trust translations, instead of looking towards God's true scriptures in full, not taking a bad translation for granted.
