.
The other day someone posted Romans 11:32 to make
the argument that God wants "all men" to become saved.
Rom 11:32
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief,
that he might have mercy upon all.
This a perfect example of the most common reason "Christians" teach
heresy. They take one or two verses and build a "doctrine" around them
without ensuring they have HARMONY with ALL RELATED Scriptures.
Any (good) heresy must harmonize with one or two Scriptures because
any (good) LIE must contain a little truth. However, building a "doctrine"
without harmony with ALL RELATED passages is, at best, only teaching
some PARTIAL-TRUTH (more commonly known as a LIE).
So, let's TEST the notion that God wants "all men" to be saved,
or if the CONTEXT of such statements is God wants "all the elect"
to become saved.
(1) First, let's establish a basic principle: Did Jesus teach that
ALL MEN can be saved, or did He teach ALL ELECT will be saved?
In John 6 Jesus taught that NO MAN can come to Him unless the
Father first "draws them" [v6:44] and ALL MEN the Father draws
"shall come" to Him and NONE of them would ever be lost [v6:37].
This most basic and essential Gospel Truth is then repeated [v6:39].
(2) Next, let's establish another basic principle: Some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Jesus explains [Mark 4:12] that some
men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" the Gospel,
or to ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". Clearly, those
who were NEVER MEANT to "have their sins forgiven" could never be
part of "His sheep" (the saved elect) that the Father "draws" to Christ.
Moreover, while the member cited Romans 11:32 to "prove" that God
wanted ALL MEN to be saved, we can see the CONTEXT of Romans 11
contradicts that assumption, demonstrating once again that the readers
of Scripture have no hope of understanding the MEANING of a passage
when they cannot discern the CONTEXT of that passage.
Rom 11:7-10
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
(According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber,
eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear
unto this day. And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a
trap, and a stumblingblock, and a recompence unto them: Let their
eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their
back always.
So we see in #1 that ALL MEN God wants to be saved will be saved
and NONE will ever be lost. And then we see in #2 that some were
NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" or "see" or "hear"
or ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". These men
were NEVER MEANT to be saved.
(3) This basic and essential Gospel Truth harmonizes with ALL RELATED
Scriptures (when the context is understood) and is taught in many other
passages. For example, in Romans 9:19-24 the Bible teaches that God
CREATED some men to be "vessels of honor" (saved) and He also
CREATED some men to be "vessels of dishonor" (unsaved).
This same Gospel principle is repeated, showing God CREATED some
men to be "vessels of mercy" (saved) and God CREATED other men
to be "vessels of wrath fitted for destruction" (unsaved)
Not only is this basic and essential Gospel Truth taught in John 6 and
Mark 4 and Romans 9 and Romans 11, it is taught throughout the Bible,
and it is DEMONSTRATED throughout all of recorded history (reality).
(4) When God destroyed the earth did He intend to save ALL the
men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY Noah and family?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.
(5) When God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrha did He intend to
save ALL men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY
Lot and family? Again, clearly the notion that God wanted to save
"all men" is proven false.
(6) During the Jewish "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 22:2 and 21:43]
did God intend to save ALL JEWS, or only some Jews? And did God
intend to save ANY GENTILES during that period, or only a very few?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.
(7) During the Christian "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 13, in 8 verses]
did God intend to save ANY unsaved "tares" in the church who were
SOWN by Satan, or ONLY the saved "wheat" in the church who were
SOWN by God? And, did God intend to save ANY of the lost souls who
were OUTSIDE the church, and rejecting both Jesus and the Gospel?
Mar 6:11-12
And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you, when ye depart
thence, shake off the dust under your feet for a testimony against
them. Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Sodom
and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city. And they
went out, and preached that men should repent.
(8) During the Great Tribulation "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 25:1-13],
also shown as the 7-Headed Revelation Beast, did God intend to save
ANY of the "foolish virgins", or ONLY the "wise virgins"? Again we
see the Gospel does not teach that God intends "all men" to be saved.
Mat 25:10-13
And while they [foolish virgins] went to buy, the bridegroom [Jesus]
came; and they that were ready [wise virgins] went in with him
to the marriage: and the door was shut [after that Final Harvest].
Afterward came also the other [foolish] virgins, saying, Lord, Lord,
open to us. But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you,
I know you not. Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor
the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.
Of course there are MANY more passages teaching some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Passages where Jesus calls people by
names like "serpents" and "children of hell" and "swine" and "dogs"
and "vipers" and "wolves in sheep's clothing" and "false prophets"
and "the blind" and "children of Satan"... but the limited examples
provided above (#1-#8) are sufficient to refute the heresy that God
wants "all men" to be saved.
The ONLY measure of Biblical Truth is harmony with ALL RELATED
Scriptures. Therefore, whenever a "doctrine" contradicts Scripture
we know absolutely that "doctrine" is not Biblical.
Jim
The other day someone posted Romans 11:32 to make
the argument that God wants "all men" to become saved.
Rom 11:32
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief,
that he might have mercy upon all.
This a perfect example of the most common reason "Christians" teach
heresy. They take one or two verses and build a "doctrine" around them
without ensuring they have HARMONY with ALL RELATED Scriptures.
Any (good) heresy must harmonize with one or two Scriptures because
any (good) LIE must contain a little truth. However, building a "doctrine"
without harmony with ALL RELATED passages is, at best, only teaching
some PARTIAL-TRUTH (more commonly known as a LIE).
So, let's TEST the notion that God wants "all men" to be saved,
or if the CONTEXT of such statements is God wants "all the elect"
to become saved.
(1) First, let's establish a basic principle: Did Jesus teach that
ALL MEN can be saved, or did He teach ALL ELECT will be saved?
In John 6 Jesus taught that NO MAN can come to Him unless the
Father first "draws them" [v6:44] and ALL MEN the Father draws
"shall come" to Him and NONE of them would ever be lost [v6:37].
This most basic and essential Gospel Truth is then repeated [v6:39].
(2) Next, let's establish another basic principle: Some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Jesus explains [Mark 4:12] that some
men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" the Gospel,
or to ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". Clearly, those
who were NEVER MEANT to "have their sins forgiven" could never be
part of "His sheep" (the saved elect) that the Father "draws" to Christ.
Moreover, while the member cited Romans 11:32 to "prove" that God
wanted ALL MEN to be saved, we can see the CONTEXT of Romans 11
contradicts that assumption, demonstrating once again that the readers
of Scripture have no hope of understanding the MEANING of a passage
when they cannot discern the CONTEXT of that passage.
Rom 11:7-10
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
(According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber,
eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear
unto this day. And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a
trap, and a stumblingblock, and a recompence unto them: Let their
eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their
back always.
So we see in #1 that ALL MEN God wants to be saved will be saved
and NONE will ever be lost. And then we see in #2 that some were
NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" or "see" or "hear"
or ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". These men
were NEVER MEANT to be saved.
(3) This basic and essential Gospel Truth harmonizes with ALL RELATED
Scriptures (when the context is understood) and is taught in many other
passages. For example, in Romans 9:19-24 the Bible teaches that God
CREATED some men to be "vessels of honor" (saved) and He also
CREATED some men to be "vessels of dishonor" (unsaved).
This same Gospel principle is repeated, showing God CREATED some
men to be "vessels of mercy" (saved) and God CREATED other men
to be "vessels of wrath fitted for destruction" (unsaved)
Not only is this basic and essential Gospel Truth taught in John 6 and
Mark 4 and Romans 9 and Romans 11, it is taught throughout the Bible,
and it is DEMONSTRATED throughout all of recorded history (reality).
(4) When God destroyed the earth did He intend to save ALL the
men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY Noah and family?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.
(5) When God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrha did He intend to
save ALL men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY
Lot and family? Again, clearly the notion that God wanted to save
"all men" is proven false.
(6) During the Jewish "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 22:2 and 21:43]
did God intend to save ALL JEWS, or only some Jews? And did God
intend to save ANY GENTILES during that period, or only a very few?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.
(7) During the Christian "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 13, in 8 verses]
did God intend to save ANY unsaved "tares" in the church who were
SOWN by Satan, or ONLY the saved "wheat" in the church who were
SOWN by God? And, did God intend to save ANY of the lost souls who
were OUTSIDE the church, and rejecting both Jesus and the Gospel?
Mar 6:11-12
And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you, when ye depart
thence, shake off the dust under your feet for a testimony against
them. Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Sodom
and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city. And they
went out, and preached that men should repent.
(8) During the Great Tribulation "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 25:1-13],
also shown as the 7-Headed Revelation Beast, did God intend to save
ANY of the "foolish virgins", or ONLY the "wise virgins"? Again we
see the Gospel does not teach that God intends "all men" to be saved.
Mat 25:10-13
And while they [foolish virgins] went to buy, the bridegroom [Jesus]
came; and they that were ready [wise virgins] went in with him
to the marriage: and the door was shut [after that Final Harvest].
Afterward came also the other [foolish] virgins, saying, Lord, Lord,
open to us. But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you,
I know you not. Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor
the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.
Of course there are MANY more passages teaching some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Passages where Jesus calls people by
names like "serpents" and "children of hell" and "swine" and "dogs"
and "vipers" and "wolves in sheep's clothing" and "false prophets"
and "the blind" and "children of Satan"... but the limited examples
provided above (#1-#8) are sufficient to refute the heresy that God
wants "all men" to be saved.
The ONLY measure of Biblical Truth is harmony with ALL RELATED
Scriptures. Therefore, whenever a "doctrine" contradicts Scripture
we know absolutely that "doctrine" is not Biblical.
Jim
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