Does God Love everyone?

Does God Love everyone?

  • Yes

    Votes: 51 81.0%
  • No

    Votes: 12 19.0%

  • Total voters
    63
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Hammster

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Hammster

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God asks us to love our enemies. Why would He ask us to love people that He doesnt love Himself?
Because we don’t know who the elect are.
 
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Hammster

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Also, if we love our enemies, wouldn't that mean that we hope and pray that they be saved? Even if they reject God?
Yes.
 
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Hammster

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Oh, so our enemies could be our brethren?
Yes. Also, we are no better than them. It would be arrogant of us, those who should be most humble.
 
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Hammster

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Ok. Who then is the world? Please dont refer me to one of your other posts, just answer it please. This is beginning to feel like a circle
The post I referred you to answered the question. Every tribe, young and nation.
 
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Hammster

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Are they believers? If so then are you saying John refers to the church as the world?
I give up. You’ve worn me down. I cannot keep repeating myself.
 
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PuerAzaelis

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Simple question with profound theological and philosophical underpinnings, but I am going to poll this closed-ended. If you have more to add, please comment below.

God loves all existing things. For all existing things, in so far as they exist, are good, since the existence of a thing is itself a good; and likewise, whatever perfection it possesses. Now it has been shown above (I:19:4) that God's will is the cause of all things. It must needs be, therefore, that a thing has existence, or any kind of good, only inasmuch as it is willed by God. To every existing thing, then, God wills some good. Hence, since to love anything is nothing else than to will good to that thing, it is manifest that God loves everything that exists. Yet not as we love. Because since our will is not the cause of the goodness of things, but is moved by it as by its object, our love, whereby we will good to anything, is not the cause of its goodness; but conversely its goodness, whether real or imaginary, calls forth our love, by which we will that it should preserve the good it has, and receive besides the good it has not, and to this end we direct our actions: whereas the love of God infuses and creates goodness.

Newadvent.org. (2018). SUMMA THEOLOGIAE: God's love (Prima Pars, Q. 20). [online] Available at: SUMMA THEOLOGIAE: God's love (Prima Pars, Q. 20) [Accessed 25 May 2018].
 
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HypnoToad

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No, Jesus died only for the elect. Now you know.
1 John 2:2 - "and he himself is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for our sins but also for the whole world."

"Savior of for all men, specially those who believes" means Jesus died for all types of men (Jew, Greek, men, women, slave, free), specifically believers. Jesus doesn't save unbelievers.
No, it means salvation is offered to all. "Specially those who believe" means the larger group has to include unbelievers. Otherwise, you're claiming it says, "Jesus is the savior of all believers, especially those who believe," which is nonsensical.

You are confusing who Jesus died for with who is saved. He died for all, that doesn't mean all are saved.

Then you are left with universalism.
You make the same error - confusing who was died for with who is saved.
 
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Hammster

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According to you, there can be false prophets who are elect. If those false prophets (who are elect) are going to be deceiving the elect, then you have the elect deceiving the elect.
Maybe you don’t understand what is meant by elect. Not all of the elect are saved at this moment. Some are still going to be saved.
 
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Hammster

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You make the same error - confusing who was died for with who is saved.
No I’m not. I posted Colossians 2 and went step by step with another member. If Christ died for all, then everyone’s sin debt has been paid, and there’s no need for hell outside the devil and his angels.
 
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