Gill has some truth but as a proponent of double predestination proved that some of his conclusions are erroneous. If you agree with the implication then that the only ones saved are the elect then you have to also, by implication, agree that all that are not saved are elected to destruction. That is not biblical
.
Brother, perhaps you are confusing double predestination with
equal ultimacy. If one believes in election then he cannot deny double predestination. It is the logical conclusion. If God chose person A for salvation, and left person B to their just condemnation, that is the same thing as saying God chose person B for their just condemnation.
God's non-choice of person B is still a choice on God's part. You just can't escape that conclusion. So double predestination is perfectly biblical. Consider these verses:
Rom 9:18 So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and
he hardens whomever he wills.
Rom 9:21-23
(21) Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use
and another for dishonorable use?
(22) What if God,
desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction,
(23) in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory--
1Pe 2:7-8
(7) So the honor is for you who believe,
but for those who do not believe, "The stone that the builders rejected has become the cornerstone,"
(8) and "A stone of stumbling, and a rock of offense."
They stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do.
These verses clearly teach that God passes over some, hardens some, however you want to call it. reprobation is taught by scripture, we can't escape from it. I mean 1 Peter 2:7-8 clearly teaches that unbelievers are
destined to disobey the word.
That being said, election and reprobation are not equal. They are not symmetrical. Let me explain.
God saves the elect by coming into their lives and actively pursuing them, and changing their hearts, and drawing them to Christ, etc.
But the reprobate he simply leaves to their just condemnation. He doesn't have to do any active movement on His part. He can just "remove his hands" of grace from them.
So the reprobate are not condemned by any movement on God's part, but by their own sin. The elect are saved precisely because God intervenes. He comes as a rescuer! A savior.
Originally Posted by RobertZ
"And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."
Well this passage throws a wrench into calvinism for me, anyone?
No Robert because the phrase "us and the whole world" does not necessarily mean "those who are reading this and everyone else who isn't reading this, too". Rather it could mean "Jews and Gentiles". John was a Jew writing to Jews (He was an apostle to the Jews) and to a Jewish person the "world" or "whole world" means the nations of the world.
The NT authors were constantly trying to correct the Jewish mindset that the Messiah was for the Jews only. They never thought He would come and save the pagan Gentiles too!
Further, in the context of that verse John is writing specifically to believers and talking about how Christ is a worthy savior because he gave himself as a propitiation for our sins. "If anyone sins..we have an advocate with the Father..Jesus Christ...who was the propitiation for not only our sins, but the world"
Jesus was not the propitiation for unbelievers, nor is he the advocate to the Father to them. Those are only true of believers. Propitiation means to successfully satisfy God's wrath. It doesn't mean that he
potentially satisfied God's wrath for an unbeliever if only the unbeliever adds his free will to it. John says he
was the propitiation, not that he was the hypothetical one.
