Micaiah said:
Thankyou for the quote. Mutations do occur in the human genome, so in one sense I agree with you that the probability is 100 % that a mutation will occur.
Allow me to rephrase question 1:
1. What is the probability of a gamete mutation occuring in a certain nucleotide that meets the requirements of the Neo Darwinian thoery of evolution (the most common theory in vogue).
I have already answered that question. It is 100%, if I understand the "neo-darwinian" requirements. I know what evolution requires, and it definitely does not require any "net gain" in "information", as you said it did. That's why I would need you to define your question with specifics and sources.
With regard to mutation rates mentioned above, some further things should be kept in mind. The type of mutation needs to be compatible with NDT.
I don't know what you mean by "NDT". I can only assume that when you say "neo-Darwinian", you're probably referring to the "modern synthesis"; of Mendelo-Darwinian environmentally-selective population genetics. If you mean something else by that, then please clarify. Also, since you're claiming these to be
their requirements, (and not your own parodied version of them) then you should probably produce some source identifying that criteria in thier own words. Once you've done that, I promise that I -and other qualified people here- will provide an adequate answer.
Also, we know that after replication the DNA is checked for copying errors. This substantially reduces the incidence of copying errors. The rates you gave seem far too high and I suspect do not meet the requirements of the first question posed.
Yet I have already substantiated them with documentation from genetics research laboratories.
As has already been explained, that would be meaningless. Every week, someone wins a lottery despite staggering odds. Alternatively, how probable is magic?
Not true in this context.
Yes it is. How could you ever calculate the probability of anything that ever happened to you? And how could that be objectively verified?
Remember that the Torah, the gospels, the Qu'ran, the Adi-Granth, the Kitab-i-Aqdas, the Bhagavad-Gita, the Vedas, the Avestas, and the book of Mormon -are each claimed by millions to be the "absolute truth", and the "revealed word" of the "one true god". Now think about your probabilities for a moment. Which is more probable? That all of these conflicting religious doctrines are indeed what they claim to be? Or that all of them are inaccurate? Because the least probable position I can imagine is that all of these are absolutely wrong -except one, and that one is absolutely without error of any kind. That is a statistical impossibility given the circumstances.
The existence of error is evidence for the truth, not that the truth does not exist.
See? That's your problem. The existence of error is evidence of error, not truth.
Let me hit this to you again. Let's say we have nine people, each representing the millions of proponants for each of these books. All of them claim thiers to be perfectly accurate, and absolutely infallible because each claims to have been delivered personally by God himself, whether he be known as YHWH, Jesus, Allah, Guru Nanak, Krsna, Brahma, the god of Bahá'u'lláh, or his messenger angel, Moroni. All of them base their assertions about thier particular books of dogma, not on evidence of any kind, but on the contradictory words of highly-dubious scribes. Not a one among them can show anything to back or verify any of thier claims. And the very nature of faith, (belief that defies reason) indicates that all of them might well have come about the same way, out of the minds of men who didn't really know what they were talking about.
All of them could be partially right, or all of them could be absolutely wrongl. But only one of them, (at an absolute maximum) even could be absolutely right compared to the others, and all of them share the same fundamental flaws. So if each of the others was either inspired but inaccurate, or made-up out of whole cloth, then
all of them can be. And that's the most proabable explanation by far.
It is also possible that all of them are right to some variable degree. But given these circumstances, the most
improbable option is that any of them really knows the absolute truth while all the others are absolutely wrong.
Micaiah said:
I had a look at your first example, and note it states the following:
On the basis of less contentious evidence, 12000 years ago seems to be a reasonable estimate of the earliest substantial human activity on the altiplano, although whether these people were the direct antecedents of the current indigenous populations is unknown. This duration is an important parameter in considering the role of evolution in these populations as it establishes the time frame over which evolutionary changes would have had to occur.
The author then states:
It is unlikely that genetic adaptation has occurred in Andean populations as a result of the generation and promulgation of new alleles over the last 12000 years. The mutation frequency in humans is approximately 10-6 per meiosis per gene, and the probability of a beneficial variant arising is much lower. Furthermore, unless the interbreeding population was quite small, any new allele would have to confer a considerable advantage to avoid being eliminated by genetic drift (the stochastic variation of allele frequencies within a population) within the first few generations and, as there is no evidence for a unique and extremely adapted phenotype in human high-altitude populations, this scenario seems unlikely. However, the appearance of new alleles is not a prerequisite for adaptation. There is substantial genetic variability in humans. Extensive sequencing of the human genome indicates that between two people, on average, there is a single nucleotide polymorphism every thousand bases, or approximately 3 million per genome (Bentley, 2000). By convention, a polymorphic locus has at least two variants that are present in more than 1% of the population (Sunyaev et al., 2000). While most variants are silent and do not affect the coding or regulatory sequences of genes, many have associated phenotypes and thus contribute to human phenotypic variability.
In other words he does not believe that this is a candidate to use as an example of NDT.
No sir. He said he doubted their adaptation resulted from a mutation. And he worded this badly, because no matter how you slice it, the Andean genetic defense against appoplexia can only be described as an adaptation, and he even describes it as such in the remainder of his text.
All of the direct examples I listed, you dismissed collectively after reading one mentioned only periphrially. I guess I was right about your faith being of the type that you have decided in advance that no amount of evidence will ever convince you, no matter what the quantity or quality of that is.
I also note that the mutation rate during meiosis mentioned is much higher that the rate stated above. In commenting on this point in his book "Not by Chance", Dr Lee Spetner notes that in mammals rate of copying errors is about 1 in 10,000,000,000.
If he can't even debate me, don't try to use him as an authority against me. While I certainly wouldn't belittle a physicist in their field, a physicist is not a geneticist, and a creationist isn't a scientist at all, since science requires objectivity. And I have already shown you multiple sources within genetics research itself which shows that the number your authority made up is wrong.