Having politely addressed your post - I will ask you again to answer my very straight forward questions.
There is a third reason, and that is I answered the first, and just scanned the rest. And that is the truth. I only had strength for one question. That is why I asked for you to ask one question at a time. But it seems you want me to go back and hunt through the haystack for the questions. I wasn't really aware there were any. What I'm not doing is avoiding answering any question. I know what and why I believe. I just have to do so in great pain at the moment. Sitting is hurting me, and I can't even walk. I've been in bed all day, didn't even go to church. Visiting with you IS my church today. LOL
I'm also somewhat familiar with Semitic writing styles and Hebrew idioms.
It's obvious that great grace was upon them after Pentecost. What is not a logical deduction from the passage is that the great power and great grace only came upon them at or after Pentecost and that it was not on them before.
Although I'll agree that that is what the entire witness of early Acts teaches us - I'm just trying to keep your statements logically accurate. They haven't always been logical deductions (as in the case of your deduction from reading
Romans 5:8).
You say you know Semitic writing styles, and yet can't verify that Acts 4:33 is one of them? If you say so.
It is obvious to me. And it is obvious that even though the disciples walked and studied under Jesus, directly, they did not always have the POWER for which Jesus told them to wait in Jerusalem. Peter wouldn't have denied Christ if he had, and the rest wouldn't have abandoned him either. And as I recall, it may have been you that mentioned Satan sifting Peter as wheat. Satan didn't get what he wished for. Peter DID receive the Holy Spirit as did the others when Jesus blew His Spirit into them
after the resurrection. And again, a stronger dose on the Day of Pentecost, whereas the other believers that made up the 120 received the first on the Day of Pentecost, and the stronger dose in Acts 4:31.
I still see the "
yet sinners" of Romans 5:8 as pertinent and even profound that we indeed go from sinner to saint. It shows there was a before, in order to see the after.
1 Peter does not say that we have all died to sin. It says that Christ bore our sins that we might die to sin. It is an ideal and it is not always the case that we do not have some sin still living in us.
Yes that we MIGHT die to sin. Universalism is a heresy, thus not everyone
will, but
might IF the sacrifice for them and all that it entails is applied to them. What that entails is never quenching the gift of the Holy Spirit once applied for POWER. If you quench the power, you go back into feeling your way around in the dark.
You are wrong. I don't believe that and neither do the Reformed teachers you often take issue with.
I'm glad that you, personally, see that grace is not
just unmerited favor. But, you would be the first Reformationist type Christian I've read on the forums who doesn't. In your profile, couldn't you narrow down your denominational preference to narrower than the broad "Protestant"? That category is about 30,000 to choose from, and is only one step less broad than "Christian," second only to "Non-Denominational." I'm Protestant, and Non-denominational, but believe in the gifts of the Spirit are for today, but not all the man-made rules of holiness that some calling themselves, Pentecostal, burden themselves with. I do wear makeup, slacks, play cards, go to movies, dance and like wine in small doses. Thus I'm Charismatic, but not Word of Faith in their extreme (name it and claim it.)
Another reason for believing that grace in the life of a believer is the power of God, equipping us for righteousness; and not unmerited favor covering human weakness while we can't stop sinning, is Hebrews 10:29. If it was not power to not commit willful sin, but covering of all sins, both willful and unintentional, as unmerited favor implies, then how could you stamp on the Spirit of Grace? You would be establishing unmerited favor, not trampling on it. No! By willfully sinning after been given the power not to, is why it is trampling on that power, the Spirit of Grace.
The highlighted parts below that I do NOT agree with, scripturally, and why I believe the Reformation was a dangerous church age preaching a doctrine that makes weak Christians by lying to us.
Martin Luther "Sin boldly"):
"If you are a preacher of mercy, do not preach an imaginary but the true mercy. If the mercy is true, you must therefore bear the true, not an imaginary sin. God does not save those who are only imaginary sinners.
Be a sinner, and let your sins be strong, but let your trust in Christ be stronger, and rejoice in Christ who is the victor over sin, death, and the world.
We will commit sins while we are here, for this life is not a place where justice resides. We, however, says Peter (2. Peter 3:13) are looking forward to a new heaven and a new earth where justice will reign. It suffices that through God’s glory we have recognized the Lamb who
takes away the sin of the world. No sin can separate us from Him, even if we were to kill or commit adultery thousands of times each day. Do you think such an exalted Lamb paid merely a small price with a meager sacrifice for our sins? Pray hard, for you are quite a sinner."
Martin Luther only understood the "covering of our sins by the blood of bulls and goats" and superimposing that weakness on to the blood and sacrifice of Jesus, and not that Jesus was manifested to TAKE AWAY our sin, and in Him there is no sin. Why would Luther claim the Lamb who takes away the sin of the world, and state we will still commit sin. That describes not taking away, but merely covers. That doesn't mean the sins are still there, just covered up. It doesn't mean that the sins we keep committing our automatically forgiven as with the doctrine of "Past, Present, and Future" sins, but rather on the Scriptural "PAST" sins are cleansed. No where does an apostle claim you have no strength in this life, as Luther did.
Here is a question for you. Read 1 John 1 and show me what Semitic style of writing it is. Diagram it by verse number. It is evident that Luther did not understand the Semitic style of writing of this chapter either, basing a heresy he wound up teaching on it.
Please ask me another question. I'm going back to lie down and will read and answer ONE question later. Right now, I can't think of what I may have missed.